Which of the following describes the study

10 Jun Which of the following describes the study

Question
micro biology pt.2

31. Which of the following describes the study of the frequency and distribution of disease and other

health-related factors in defined populations?

A. Serology

B. Immunology

C. Epidemiology

D. Vaccination

…

32. Which of the following is true of steps or processes involved in inflammation?

A. Chemokines are secreted, which act as signals that attract leukocytes by chemotaxis.

B. Vasodilation occurs during the first step in inflammation, and allows for uptake of pathogens into the

blood.

C. Vasoconstriction occurs during the last step in inflammation, and squeezes phagocytes out of the

bloodstream into the site of infection.

D. All of the above.

E. None of the above

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33. Which of the following best describes the functions of cytotoxic T cells?

A. They secrete antibodies to inhibit invading pathogens

B. They recognize exogenous antigens bound to MHC Class II proteins on host cells

C. They are involved in recognition and killing of abnormal host cells, e.g. cancerous cells or those

infected with viruses.

D. They are unable to recognize self vs. non-self and attack all cells that they encounter.

E. None of the above.

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34. Which of the following is a similarity between T cells and B cells?

A. They are both phagocytic cells that only play a role in innate immunity.

B. They are both produced in the thymus.

C. They both secrete antibodies when activated.

D. The both have receptors (T cell receptors or immunoglobulins) that recognize a unique, pathogenspecific

epitope on an antigen.

E. All of the above.

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35. Which of the following cells are produced upon activation of CD4-containing T cells?

A. Helper T cells

B. Memory T cells

C. Regulatory T cells that help to dampen and regulate

D. All of the above.

E. None of the above.

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36. Which of the following microorganisms is a causative of acute diarrhea (colitis) associated with

antibiotic treatment?

A. Cryptococcus neoformans

B. Streptococcus pneumoniae

C. Vibrio cholerae

D. Coccidioides immitis

E. Clostridium difficile

E

37. Which of the phases of the infective cycle of the causative agent of malaria is responsible for the

“cyclic” symptoms of this disease?

A. Erythrocytic phase in red blood cells, where trophozoites feed, lyse red blood cells and infect

additional red blood cells.

B. The pre-erythrocytic phase in the liver, where merozoites are produced and released.

C. The sexual phase, which occurs in the mosquito vector.

D. The infection phase, where a mosquito vector can repeatedly bite and infect the same host.

E. None of the above.

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38. Which of the following pathogens is a potential causative agent of pneumonia?

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae

B. Legionella pneumophila

C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

D. Klebsiella pneumoniae

E. All of the above

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39. Which of the following pathogens is the causative agent of the most serious form of acute

meningitis?

A. Streptococcus pyogenes

B. Neisseria meningitidis

C. Listeria monocytogenes

D. Cryptococcus neoformans

E. None of the above

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40. Which of the following best describes herd immunity?

A. Immunization of farm animals, to prevent transmission of potential pathogens to humans.

B. Receiving as many vaccines as possible, to prevent infection from all known pathogens.

C. Phenomenon in which a high enough percentage of the population is vaccinated, such that it is

virtually impossible for the pathogen that is the target of the vaccine to circulate.

D. When a patient receives a dose of antibodies from another host.

E. When a pathogen has been completely removed from the wild, so that vaccination against this

pathogen is no longer necessary.

…

41. A patient apparently has aseptic meningitis, where no pathogen cells are visible by staining and

microscopy of a sample of the cerebral spinal fluid. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this

aseptic meningitis?

A. Neisseria meningitidis

B. Streptococcus pneumoniae

C. Cryptococcus neoformans

D. A virus such as enterovirus

46. Which of the following best describes opsonization?

A. Binding of antibodies to a toxin that inhibits its ability to bind to its target.

B. Binding of antibodies to complement protein to prevent its assembly and activity.

C. Binding of antibodies to host cells to allow them to better distinguish between self and non-self.

D. Binding of antibodies to spike proteins on a virus that prevents them from interacting with receptors

on a host cell, thus preventing adsorption.

E. Binding of antibodies to an antigen that allows better recognition of a pathogen by phagocytes, thus

enhancing phagocytosis.

…

47. Detection of DNA sequences associated with a specific pathogen using the polymerase chain

reaction (PCR) is an example of a(n) ___________ method for identifying a microbe.

A. phenotypic

B. genotypic

C. immunologic

D. serological

E. None of the above is correct

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48. In which area or portion of the body is the normal resident microbiota most abundant and diverse?

A. Lower gastrointestinal tract

B. Lower respiratory tract

C. Urinary tract

D. Skin

E. Central nervous system

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49. What virulence factor of Streptococcus pneumoniae allows it to evade phagocytosis in the lungs?

A. Ability to live inside lung macrophages.

B. Ability to deactivate T cells and B cells.

C. Formation of biofilms and generation of anaerobic conditions.

D. Presence of capsule surrounding the cell.

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50. Which of the following diseases is typically the result of a truly polymicrobial infection?

A. Malaria

B. Periodontal disease

C. Rubella

D. Influenza

E. AIDS

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51. Which of the following leukocytes produces antibody-secreting plasma cells after activation?

A. Macrophages

B. Neutrophils

C. B cells

D. T cells

E. All of the above

…

52. Which of the following are important in activation of T cells?

A. Presentation of antigens to the T cell by an APC (antigen presenting cell).

B. Recognition of the presented antigen by the T cell receptor.

C. Co-recognition of the MHC Class II protein on the APC by the CD4 receptor on the T cell.

D. All of the above.

E. None of the above.

53. Which of the following best describes the indirect ELISA test?

A. It is used to detect the presence of a specific antibody in a sample using a known antigen.

B. It is used to detect the presence of a specific antigen in a sample using a known antigen.

C. It is used to detect the presence of a pathogen’s DNA in a sample.

D. It relies on cultivation of the target microbe from the patient or sample.

E. It is used to determine whether a pathogen is Gram negative or Gram positive.

…

54. Which of the following is an example of a lymphocyte?

A. Red blood cells

B. Platelets

C. Neutrophils

D. Macrophages

E. B cells

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55. Which of the following is an important virulence factor for Staphylococcus aureus?

A. Hyaluronidase

B. Coagulase

C. Exfoliative toxins A and B

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

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56. How is fusion of the lysosome with the phagosome important in phagocytosis?

A. Fusion helps to expel the pathogen from the phagocytic cell.

B. This fusion forms the phagolysosome and exposes phagosome contents to digestive enzymes and

antimicrobial chemicals.

C. Fusion aids in recognition of the pathogen.

D. Fusion helps the phagocytic cell to avoid destruction by other host cells.

E. Fusion allows the pathogen to survive within the phagocytic cell, and is an important virulence factor

in all pathogens.

…

57. Why is biofilm formation important for both dental caries and periodontal disease?

A. It prevents growth of all microbes except the pathogen.

B. It allows for generation of anaerobic environments that promote production of acid and/or growth of

strict anaerobes.

C. It prevents generation of anaerobic environments and favors growth of strict aerobes which are

responsible for acid production and pathogenesis in these diseases.

D. It allows for better spread of the causative agents of these diseases from one host to another.

…

58. Which of the following processes involves small changes in the hemagglutinin (H) and neuraminidase

(N) antigens due to point mutations and is most responsible for the need to produce a new vaccine for

the influenza virus each year?

A. antigenic drift

B. antigenic shift

C. reverse transcription

D. B cell activation

E. autoimmunity

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59. Exchange of segments of the RNA genome from two different influenza viruses that infect the same

host can result in ______________, potentially causing large changes in the virus that can result in

pandemic strains.

A. antigenic drift

B. antigenic shift

C. reverse transcription

D. B cell activation

E. autoimmunity

…

60. Several anti-retroviral drugs such as AZT target the enzyme ____________ and thereby prevent

conversion of the HIV RNA genome to DNA, a necessary step in the infection cycle of this virus.

A. protease

B. staphylokinase

C. reverse transcriptase

D. RNA primase

E. coagulase

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