BIOL 360 – Why is the initial primary transcript RNA

11 Jun BIOL 360 – Why is the initial primary transcript RNA

Question
Question 54

Why is the initial primary transcript RNA much larger than the mature mRNA molecule that will be sent to the cytoplasm for translation?

a) the 5′ UTR must be removed before translation can begin

b) The primary transcript contains introns that are removed by splicing

c) the capping procedure results in the removal of hundreds of nucleotides from the 5′ end

d) the poly A tails of the primary transcripts must be removed before translocation to the cytoplasm

Question 55

Between induction by allolactose and catabolite repression, mRNA is produced in largest quantities ________

a) when lactose is present and glucose is absent.

b) when both lactose and glucose are absent.

c) when lactose is absent and glucose is present.

d) in cells that express the LacR protein at high levels.

e) when both lactose and glucose are present.

Question 56

White eye color in Drosophila was discovered to be sex linked by Thomas Hunt Morgan, who observed that________

a) the inheritance pattern of eye color in the progeny depended on the sex of the mutant parent.

b) reciprocal crosses produced the same results, like with most traits.

c) the white-eyed flies were color blind, in contrast to the red-eyed flies.

d) the red-eye phenotype developed only in flies that had mated.

Question 57

A test cross______ (choose all that apply)

a) gives results either 100% dominant or 1:1 dominant: recessive.

b) uses a homozygous recessive in the cross.

c) is also known as a dihybrid cross

d) is used to determine the genotype of the recessive individual.

e) is a cross between two heterozygotes

Question 60

All of the following characteristics of meiosis explain Mendel’s law of segregation, EXCEPT____

a) meiosis produces cells that are genetically identical.

b) meiosis produces cells that are haploid.

c) alleles of a trait segregate individually into gametes.

d) fertilization produces a new diploid cell from two haploid gametes.

e) during meiosis characters (most often) segregate independently.

Question 1.

Eukaryotic chromosomes include centromeres, described by all of the following EXCEPT:

a) they have highly conserved sequences.

b) they are responsible for daughter cells receiving identical chromosomes.

c) they associate with kinetochores.

d) they are where the mitotic spindle attaches.

e) Actually, they are described by all of these.

Question 2

Eukaryotic DNA condensation occurs in which order?

a) double helix, loops, nucleosome, 30nm fiber, prometaphasic chromosome.

b) double helix, 30nm fiber, nucleosome, loops, prometaphasic chromosome.

c) double helix, nucleosome, 30nm fiber, loops, prometaphasic chromosome.

d) prometaphasic chromosome, 30nm fiber, loops, nucleosome, double helix.

e) double helix, nucleosome, loops, 30nm fiber, prometaphasic chromosome.

Question 4

Which of the following is NOT an observation that supports the endosymbiotic theory?

a) these organelles both possess double membranes, unlike other organelles.

b) these organelles both generate ATP.

c) Actually, all of these observations support the endosymbiotic theory.

d) DNA from these organelles show higher sequence similarity to eubacterial DNA than to eukaryotic DNA.

E) these organelles both possess ribosomes that are similar to eubacterial ribosomes.

Question 7

Unlike prokaryotic chromosomes, eukaryotic chromosomes in a diploid cell…

A) none of the other answers is correct.

b) are generally circular.

c) associate with nonhistone proteins.

d) lack telomeres.

e) can be grouped into homologous pairs.

Question 11

Sequence comparisons have suggested that during evolution movement of genes has occured from mitochondria to…

a) to the nucleus and lysosomes.

b) none – DNA does not move between organelles.

c) both nuclei and chloroplasts.

d) only the chloroplast.