Please answer all 22 of these genetics questions

26 Jun Please answer all 22 of these genetics questions

Question
Biology 302 Molecular and General Genetics
Summer 2013 Exam 6

FORM 0

__________________________________________
Name, please print legibly

INSTRUCTIONS:
1.
2.
3.
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6.

Fill in your name in the above blank.
On the Scantron sheet, fill in your name and student ID number.
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Read the statements below, sign your name, and then tear off this cover sheet.
Turn in this cover sheet and Scantron sheet. You can keep your question sheets.
The answer Key will be posted in the glass case outside the elevators in the Biology
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__________________________________________
Signature and Date

Summer 2013 BIOL 302

EXAM 6 Form 0

1. The DNA sequence below contains a palindromic sequence consisting of:

A G G A G C T T C T
T C C T C G A A G A

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

One palindrome of 4 bases
Two palindromes of 4 bases each
One palindrome of 6 bases
One palindrome of 4 bases and one palindrome of 6 bases
There is no palindromic sequence longer than three bases

Use the information below to answer the next two questions.
To the right is a map of the vector pUC19. Imagine you were to clone
(insert) a copy of the human insulin gene into this plasmid obtained by
performing RT-PCR on an mRNA sample taken from human
pancreatic beta cells. You then transform a strain of E. coli that is
ampS and lac- with the construct you have made.

MCS

2. In this vector, what was the MCS used for?
a. Selection of transformants
b. Screening for conjugates
c. Insertion of DNA
d. Transformation of host cells
e. Production of pod people

3. When you succeed in putting the insulin gene into the E. coli cells, the resulting cells will
be:
a. AmpS, lacb. AmpS, lac+
c. AmpR, lacd. AmpR, lac+
e. Why would E. coli need insulin?

4. A cDNA library:
a. Does not contain regulatory sequences
b. Requires the use of reverse transcriptase
c. Contains intron sequences
d. More than one of the above
e. Can be replaced with iTunes for many people

Summer 2013 BIOL 302

EXAM 6 Form 0

5. Which of the following will be incorporated into the DNA produced by PCR?
a. dNTPs, but not primers will be incorporated into the new DNA
b. Primers, but not dNTPs will be incorporated into the new DNA
c. Both dNTPs and primers will be incorporated into the new DNA
d. Neither dNTPs nor primers will be incorporated into the new DNA
e. I can still see the afterimage from the fireworks, why are you bothering me?

5

A

<Target>

C

<Target>
B

D

6. Above is a melted fragment of DNA with a target you wish to amplify by PCR. Where
would you design the primers to anneal?
a. A and B
b. B and C
c. B and D
d. A and D
e. None of the above

7. If you want to put DNA in a bacterium, and a plasmid wont hold enough, you could
consider using a:
a. Cosmid
b. BAC
c. YAC
d. Two of the above
e. All of the above
8. Chain terminators are:
a. Altered nucleotides
b. Used for PCR
c. Used for southern blotting
d. More than one of the above

9. Which type of sequencing includes the use of chain-terminators?
a. Sanger sequencing
b. Pyro-sequencing
c. Both Sanger sequencing and pyro-sequencing
d. Neither sanger sequencing nor pyro-sequencing
e. What does sequencing have to do with DNA?

Summer 2013 BIOL 302

EXAM 6 Form 0

10. In a southern blot, the probing is done with:
a. Antibodies
b. A digested vector
c. Single stranded DNA or RNA
d. Restriction enzymes
e. None of the above

11. A two channel gene array is performed comparing human male DNA, which is labeled
green, and human female DNA, which is labeled red. An active Y-linked gene would be
expected to fluoresce:
a. Red
b. Green
c. Yellow
d. Black

12. Three individuals underwent RFLP analysis to test for the
S allele by digestion of some of their DNA with MstII,
which cuts the gene approximate 200 bp downstream from
the 5 end. To the right is a southern blot showing where in
the gel the DNA fragments of the three individuals is
located. If a single probe that bound the first 20 bp of the
gene (5 end) was used, which bands would you see in the
heterozygote?
a. The 0.2 kb only
b. The 1.1 kb only
c. The 0.2 kb and 1.1 kb bands
d. The 0.2 kb and 1.3 kb bands
e. The 1.1 kb and 1.3 kb bands

A

B

C

1.3 kb
1.1 kb

0.2 kb

13. Exposing the larvae of normal fruit flies to sodium metaborate results in the development
of greatly reduced eye size in a manner like that caused by the autosomal recessive
mutation eyeless. This is a typical example of:
a. Parental Determination
b. Phenocopy
c. Genomic Imprinting
d. Simple Mendelian Inheritance
e. Anticipation

Summer 2013 BIOL 302

EXAM 6 Form 0

Dave

Steve

Nicko

14. Which student has the fewest BamHI sites?
a. Bruce
b. Nicko
c. Steve
d. Dave
e. More than one of the above

Bruce

Occasionally, a random student is kidnapped from the commons
and a sample of the DNA is taken for testing before they are
released. When a particular 10 kb stretch of DNA from
10 kb
four students is digested with BamHI and run on a gel.
9 kb
The gel is shown to the right.
5 kb
3 kb
2 kb
1 kb

15. Which student has the most BamHI sites?
a. Bruce
b. Nicko
c. Steve
d. Dave
e. More than one of the above

16. Spinocerebellar ataxia (SCA-1) shows differences in gene action dependent upon which
parent the allele was inherited from. This is called:
a. Genomic Imprinting
b. Haplotyping
c. Anticipation
d. Parental Determination
e. Phenocopy

17. What makes Huntingtons a poor candidate for gene therapy?
a. The disease results from a single gene
b. Its relatively easy to remove and replace the target cells
c. The mutation is recessive
d. The mutation is dominant
e. Two of the above are correct

18. An adult individual homozygous for HPFH will produce which type of hemoglobin?
a. HbA hemoglobin
b. HbS hemoglobin
c. HbGower hemoglobin
d. HbF hemoglobin
e. More than one of the above

Summer 2013 BIOL 302

EXAM 6 Form 0

Below are maps of the wild type and mutant versions of the CFTR gene, which is responsible for
cystic fibrosis, along with the binding location of a probe that can be used to investigate it. The
cut sites by a restriction enzyme (labeled R) are also indicated. Also shown is a Southern Blot of
parents and a fetus that was tested.
Father

Fetus

Mother

R

R
WT CFTR
CFTR probe

R

R

R

Mutant CFTR

700 bp

300 bp

19. What size band(s) would be visible in samples from individuals who are heterozygous for
cystic fibrosis?
a. 300 bp
b. 700 bp
c. 1000 bp and 700 bp
d. 1000 bp and 300 bp
e. 1000 bp, 700 bp, and 300 bp

20. Cystic fibrosis is a recessive disease. If we ignore the possibility of reduced penetrance
and other such phenomena, will the fetus have the disease when born?
a. No
b. There is a 25% chance
c. There is a 50% chance
d. Yes
e. It is impossible to tell

21. What is the most likely nature of the CFTR probe when it is being used?
a. Double stranded DNA
b. Single stranded DNA
c. Double stranded RNA
d. Single stranded RNA
e. Surgical stainless steel

Summer 2013 BIOL 302

EXAM 6 Form 0

22. Huntingtons is a tri-base duplication caused disease like Fragile-X or SCA-1. With
Huntingtons, the length of the duplication affects the disease such that a longer
duplication results in:
a. Less severe symptoms
b. More severe sever symptoms
c. No disease occurrence
d. A later age of onset
e. An earlier age on onset

23. Like Huntingtons disease, the severity and age of onset of Myotonic Dystrophy, an
autosomal dominant multi-system disease, results from a tribase tandem repeat. Children
of individuals with the condition typically inherit longer repeats, though much more
commonly and severely when inherited from their mother than their father. Which of the
following phenomena does Myotonic Dystrophy demonstrate?
a. Gene amplification
b. Genomic imprinting
c. Phenocopy
d. Histone modification
e. None of the above

24. Which of the following pre-natal tests is performed by taking a sample of placental
tissue, often by using a flexible catheter rather than a needle?
a. Amniocentesis
b. Fetal ultrasound
c. Free fetal DNA testing
d. Chorion villus sampling
e. Cell culturing

25. Prenatal testing can be done to identify a developing fetus for an identified gene. Which
currently approved procedure can be done at the earliest point in the pregnancy?
a. Chorion villus sampling
b. Transgenic analysis
c. Amniocentesis
d. Tricorder scanning
e. More than one of the above

Summer 2013 BIOL 302

EXAM 6 Form 0

26. Which of the following sequencing methodologies use chain terminators?
a. Sanger sequencing
b. Ion torrent sequencing
c. Pyro sequencing
d. Illumina sequencing
e. More than one of the above use chain terminators

27. Early attempts by NIH to treat ADA with gene therapy were ultimately unsuccessful,
while later attempts by the San Raffaele Telethon Institute for Gene Therapy in Italy were
successful starting with Salsabil in 2001. Why did the Italian group have a more
successful outcome?
a. Because ADA is a dominant disease
b. The Italian group used older patients who had been receiving drug therapy prior
to the gene therapy
c. The NIH group used microinjection
d. They went after a different disease
e. The Italian group treat bone marrow cells