Biology 207 Principles of Biology II Assignment 1B For students

26 Jun Biology 207 Principles of Biology II Assignment 1B For students

Question
Biology 207
Principles of Biology II

Assignment 1B
For students with first names starting with the letters H to N.
This assignment is graded out of 110 points, and is worth 10% of
your final mark. Please submit this assignment after you have
completed Chapter 22 and before you write the midterm exam.

A. Definition/Comparison Questions
Instructions: In your own words, define the pairs of terms given
below. Write in complete sentences, stating the differences and
relationships between the two terms, and give specific examples
where appropriate. A complete answer usually requires four to eight
sentences.
Each question is worth four marks, for a total of 40 marks.
1. natural selection / neutral variation
2. hybridization / biological species concept
3. hybrid inviability / hybrid breakdown
4. allopatric speciation / parapatric speciation
5. autopolyploidy / allopolyploidy
6. paraphyletic taxon / monophyletic taxon
7. clade / derived characters
8. exotoxins / endotoxins
9. green bacteria / Gram-positive bacteria
10. nitrification / nitrogen fixation

Principles of Biology II

1

B. Short Answer/Short Essay Questions
Instructions: Answer each of the questions given below in your own
words. Write in complete sentences where appropriate. A complete
answer usually requires one to two sentences per mark, so a threemark question would be answered in three to six sentences. This
section is worth a total of 40 marks.
(4 marks)
(2 marks)

2. Describe the chromosomal differences between humans and
chimpanzees.

(4 marks)

3. Outline the Linnaean system of classification with its hierarchy.

(5 marks)

4. When systematists create an evolutionary tree of a group, they
exclude both homoplasies and ancestral characters. Why?

(5 marks)

5. Briefly explain the main points of Darwin’s theory of evolution.

(3 marks)

6. What are methanogens?

(9 marks)

7. Compare generalized transduction and specialized transduction.
Which of the two types will be more useful when applied in
molecular biology?

(4 marks)

8. Describe two processes in which bacteria play a role in
biogeochemical cycles.

(2 marks)

9. Explain what horizontal gene transfer means.

(2 marks)

2

1. What are mules? Is their existence a challenge to the biological
species concept? Explain why or why not.

10. Explain the term allometric growth, and give an example.

Biology 207 / Assignment 1B

C. Multiple Choice Questions
Instructions: Select the single best answer to each of the questions
given below. Each question is worth one mark, for a total of
30 marks.
1. Which of the following factors may, in different situations, either
increase or decrease genetic variation in a population?
a. natural selection
b. gene flow
c. non-random mating
d. genetic drift
e. stabilizing selection
2. All but one of the following is required for a Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium. Which one doesnt meet the requirements?
a. random mating
b. no mutations
c. small populations
d. no natural selection
e. no gene flow
3. The bottleneck effect is an example of
a. non-random mating.
b. natural selection.
c. genetic variation.
d. genetic drift.
e. directional selection.

Principles of Biology II

3

4. Which of the following factors is most likely to negatively affect a
population over the long term?
a. mutations
b. low genetic variation
c. non-random mating
d. small population size
e. gene flow
5. When females prefer a particular type of male, this is considered
a. sexual dimorphism.
b. intrasexual selection.
c. intersexual selection.
d. random mating.
e. directional selection.
6. Autopolyploidy is an example of
a. genetic drift.
b. sympatric speciation.
c. allopatric speciation.
d. hybrid inviability.
e. hybrid breakdown.
7. A plant species with a chromosome number 2n=6 hybridizes
with another species (2n=10) in the same genus to produce a
hybrid through allopolyploidy. The resulting new species has a
chromosome number of
a. 2n=6.
b. 2n=8.
c. 2n=10.
d. 2n=16.
e. 2n=32.

4

Biology 207 / Assignment 1B

8. Based on chromosome numbers, banding patterns, and
inversions, gorillas are most closely related to
a. humans.
b. orangutans.
c. chimpanzees.
d. both humans and chimpanzees.
e. none of the above.
9. Dogs that are very dissimilar usually have no problems mating
and producing fertile offspring. Which of the following
hypotheses does these observations support?
a. All dogs form one species based on the morphological
species concept.
b. All dogs form one species based on the biological species
concept.
c. There are several species of dogs.
d. Dogs may have evolved from several ancestors.
e. none of the above
10. Figure 18.14 shows five subspecies of rat snakes. Based on the
available information, it can be assumed that when given the
opportunity to mate,
a. none of the five subspecies will reproduce with one another.
b. only the Black rat snake will reproduce with most other
subspecies.
c. the Everglades rat snake will only reproduce with one other
subspecies.
d. the Texas rat snake will not reproduce with the Yellow rat
snake.
e. all five subspecies will reproduce with one another.

Principles of Biology II

5

11. Two organisms belonging to the same order would also be in the
same
a. class.
b. genus.
c. family.
d. species.
e. subspecies.
12. In traditional phylogeny, reptiles are considered as a class. In
cladistics, reptiles are a paraphyletic taxon because
a. they are closely related to birds.
b. their ancestry is unclear.
c. they include groups that have different ancestors than other
reptiles.
d. they have given rise to mammals.
e. they do not include all groups derived from the common
ancestor of reptiles.
13. When designing a cladogram of a group, you would use
a. homoplasies.
b. homologous characters.
c. ancestral characters.
d. analogous characters.
e. none of the above.
14. Which of the following would be the best molecule by which to
study evolution at the domain and kingdom levels via a
molecular clock?
a. plasmid DNA
b. chloroplast DNA
c. ribosomal RNA
d. mitochondrial DNA
e. all of the above

6

Biology 207 / Assignment 1B

15. When comparing different groups of vertebrates, the vertebral
column would be
a. a homoplasy.
b. an ancestral character.
c. a derived character.
d. paraphyletic.
e. none of the above.
16. Which of the following ideas CANNOT be attributed to Darwin?
a. Species change in the process of evolution.
b. Characters acquired during an individual’s lifetime are passed
on to the next generation.
c. Populations adapt to environmental pressure.
d. Genes that are beneficial in a given environment are more
likely to be passed on to the next generation.
e. Natural selection drives changes in populations.
17. You removed a Pax-6 gene from a mouse and replaced it with a
spider Pax-6 gene. Most likely the mouse will
a. not develop any eyes.
b. develop spider eyes.
c. develop eyes with some intermediate characters between
those of spiders and those of mice.
d. develop eyes in unusual body parts.
e. develop typical mouse eyes.
18. Members of the cactus family live in North and South America.
This information represents
a. an endemic species.
b. dispersal.
c. continuous distribution.
d. disjunct distribution.
e. convergent evolution.

Principles of Biology II

7

19. Natural selection works primarily at the level of
a. populations.
b. species.
c. individuals.
d. genera.
e. ecosystems.
20. Which of the following terms would apply when comparing the
wings of butterflies and bats?
a. cladogenesis
b. convergent evolution
c. punctuated equilibrium
d. vestigial structures
e. vicariance
21. Which of the following groups includes both nitrogen fixers and
photosynthetic bacteria?
a. cyanobacteria
b. purple bacteria
c. green bacteria
d. spirochetes
e. Gram-positive bacteria
22. In which of the following organisms would you expect exotoxins?
a. prions
b. viroids
c. viruses
d. Gram-positive bacteria
e. none of the above

8

Biology 207 / Assignment 1B

23. Which of the following are Archaea?
a. chlamydias
b. halophiles
c. myxobacteria
d. proteobacteria
e. spirochetes
24. Chemoautotrophs
a. use CO2 as a source of energy.
b. are able to perform photosynthesis.
c. may use reduced inorganic compounds as a source of
carbon.
d. may use metals as a source of energy.
e. are found in both the animal kingdom and the plant
kingdom.
25. Which of the following statements is NOT correct with regard to
Gram-positive bacteria?
a. Their cell walls bind crystal violet.
b. They have a large amount of peptidoglycan in their cell walls.
c. Their outermost cell wall layer is not a membrane.
d. They are more sensitive than Gram-negative bacteria to a
variety of antibiotics.
e. Their cell walls contain lipopolysaccharides.
26. Which of the following processes does not occur in the lifecycle
of a virulent bacteriophage?
a. An enzyme assembles head units and tail units into a
complete bacteriophage.
b. A bacteriophage injects its DNA into a host cell.
c. The host cell lyses and new phages are released.
d. Bacterial DNA is broken down by an enzyme produced by the
virus.
e. Virus DNA is replicated in the bacterial cell.

Principles of Biology II

9

27. Which of the following organisms have a capsid?
a. viroids
b. HIV viruses
c. T even viruses
d. both b and c
e. all of the above
28. Which of the following properties supports the view that viruses
are forms of life?
a. They cannot reproduce on their own.
b. They lack a metabolism.
c. They are unable to actively move towards their hosts.
d. They have nucleic acids.
e. They are not cellular.
29. Reverse transcriptase
a. synthesizes DNA from RNA.
b. synthesizes RNA from DNA.
c. synthesizes a protein from RNA.
d. catalyzes DNA replication in viruses.
e. is produced by the host cell when infected with HIV.
30. Which of the following statements applies to prions?
a. They infect hosts with unknown nucleic acids.
b. Prion proteins affect proteins in the host.
c. They have both a lysogenic and a lytic cycle.
d. Vaccines can prevent the outbreak of prion diseases.
e. Prions have capsids.
End of TMA 1B