27 Jun Bio156 final exam
Question
BIO156
Introductory Biology for Allied Health
Final Exam – Part 1
1 of 45
Mendel’s law of independent assortment states that __________.
chromosomes sort independently of each other during mitosis and meiosis
genes sort independently of each other in animals, but not in plants
independent sorting of genes produces polyploid plants under some circumstances
each pair of alleles segregates independently of the other pairs of alleles during gamete formation
None of the choices are correct
Question
2 of 45
Individual features of all organisms are the result of __________.
genetics
the environment
genetics and cytoplasmic determinants
the environment and individual needs
genetics and the environment
Question
3 of 45
How many sex chromosomes are in a human gamete?
one
two
three
four
five
Question
4 of 45
Any gene located on a sex chromosome __________.
is called a recessive gene
is called a sex-linked gene
is called a dominant allele
will exhibit pleiotropy
will exhibit codominance
Question
5 of 45
Why are sex-linked conditions more common in men than in women?
Men acquire two copies of the defective gene during fertilization.
Men need to inherit only one copy of the recessive allele for the condition to be fully expressed.
Women simply do not develop the disease regardless of their genetic composition.
The sex chromosomes are more active in men than in women.
None of the choices are correct.
Question
6 of 45
A colorblind woman mates with a man who is not colorblind. All of the sons and none of the daughters are colorblind. What is the best explanation of this result?
The gene for color vision is incompletely dominant to the gene for sex determination.
The gene for color vision is completely dominant to the gene for sex determination.
The gene for color vision is codominant with the gene for sex determination.
The gene for color vision is linked to the X chromosome.
The gene for color vision is linked to the Y chromosome.
Question
7 of 45
Karyotyping __________.
shows chromosomes as they appear in metaphase of meiosis II
can reveal alterations in chromosome number
examines points of crossing over
reveals the results of independent orientation of chromosomes during meiosis I
reveals the presence of cancerous genes
Question
8 of 45
If a chromosome fragment breaks off and is lost from the original chromosome, the resulting chromosomal abnormality is called an) __________.
deletion
inversion
translocation
nondisjunction
reciprocal translocation
Question
9 of 45
If short hair L) is dominant to long hair l), animals LL and Ll have the same __________.
genotypes
phenotypes
alleles
genes
chromatids
Question
10 of 45
One of Mendel’s defining ideas was the theory of segregation. This idea __________.
deals with the alleles governing two different traits
applies only to linked genes
applies only to sex-linked genes
explains the behavior of a pair of alleles during meiosis
applies to the partitioning of proteins
Question
11 of 45
If short hair L) is dominant to long hair l), then what fraction of the offspring produced by a cross of Ll x ll will be homozygous dominant?
1/2
1/4
1/3
1/8
None
Question
12 of 45
If a child belonged to blood Type O, he or she could NOT have been produced by which set of parents?
Type A mother and Type B father
Type A mother and Type O father
Type AB mother and Type O father
Type O mother and Type O father
Type B mother and Type O father
Question
13 of 45
Amniocentesis involves sampling __________.
the fetus directly
the fetal cells floating in the amniotic fluid
sperm
blood cells
urine
Question
14 of 45
Which of the following genotypes is said to be homozygous?
AaBB
aaBB
aaBb
aABB
Aabb
Question
15 of 45
Which of the following is NOT a true statement about genes?
Genes are located on chromosomes.
Genes are inherited independently of the chromosomes.
Genes are arranged in linear sequence on chromosomes.
A gene is a discrete sequence of DNA on a chromosome.
Genes code for proteins.
Question
16 of 45
A karyotype __________.
compares one set of chromosomes to another
is a visual display of chromosomes arranged according to size
is a photograph of cells undergoing mitosis during anaphase
of a normal human cell shows 48 chromosomes
is a representation of a cell in apoptosis
Question
17 of 45
A woman heterozygous for colorblindness an X-linked recessive allele marries a man with normal color vision. What is the probability that their first child will be colorblind?
25 percent
50 percent
75 percent
100 percent
0 percent
Question
18 of 45
What could the children of a colorblind woman and a man with normal vision be?
All will be colorblind.
None will be colorblind.
Daughters will be color-blind and sons will be of normal vision.
Sons will be colorblind and daughters will be of normal vision.
Half of the sons will be colorblind and all daughters will be colorblind.
Question
19 of 45
DNA replication __________.
occurs by the addition of nucleotides to the end of the DNA molecule
results in the formation of four new DNA strands
produces two daughter DNA molecules that are complementary to each other
uses each strand of a DNA molecule as a template for the creation of a new strand
begins when two DNA molecules join together to exchange segments
Question
20 of 45
If one strand of DNA is CGGTAC, the corresponding strand would be __________.
GCCTAG
CGGTAC
GCCAUC
TAACGT
GCCATG
Question
21 of 45
Which one of the following sequences best describes the flow of information when a gene directs the synthesis of a cellular component?
RNA ? DNA ? RNA ? protein
DNA ? RNA ? protein
protein ? RNA ? DNA
DNA ? amino acid ? RNA ? protein
DNA ? tRNA ? mRNA ? protein
Question
22 of 45
Which one of the following best describes the sequence of events of translation?
codon recognition ? translocation ? peptide bond formation ? termination
peptide bond formation ? codon recognition ? translocation ? termination
codon recognition ? peptide bond formation ? translocation ? termination
codon recognition ? peptide bond formation ? termination ? translocation
peptide bond formation ? translocation ? codon recognition ? termination
Question
23 of 45
In DNA, correct complementary base pairing would occur between __________.
cytosine and uracil
adenine and guanine
adenine and uracil
adenine and thymine
cytosine and adenine
Question
24 of 45
Which of the following is NOT true of DNA polymerase?
Adds new nucleotides to a developing strand.
Is an enzyme.
Creates the energy it needs by breaking adenine-guanine bonds.
Proofreads DNA strands to see that they are correct.
Is a protein.
Question
25 of 45
The movement of DNA fragments in a gel electrophoresis experiment is based on __________.
the amount of carbon in the fragment
the size and charge of the molecules
the number of organic rings in the fragment
their ease in going into a salt solution
the sugars in the fragment
Question
26 of 45
Which of the following is the most precise explanation of how genes work?
One gene controls one complete physical characteristic.
Human metabolic defects may arise because of absent or defective enzymes.
One gene controls one amino acid.
One gene codes for the amino acid sequence of one polypeptide chain.
Genes are made of RNA.
Question
27 of 45
The form of RNA that carries the code from the DNA to the site where the protein is assembled is called __________.
messenger RNA
nuclear RNA
ribosomal RNA
transfer RNA
siRNA
Question
28 of 45
Which nucleotide base is found in RNA but not in DNA?
thymine
deoxyribose
uracil
guanine
adenine
Question
29 of 45
Transcription __________.
occurs on the surface of the ribosome
is the final process in the assembly of a protein
occurs during the synthesis of any type of RNA from a DNA template
is catalyzed by DNA polymerase
occurs in the mitochondria
Question
30 of 45
Which of the following could NOT be an RNA transcript?
AUGCGU
ATGCGT
UACGCA
UAGCGU
GGCUAU
Question
31 of 45
Which of the following kinds of RNA is directly responsible for carrying specific amino acids to the ribosomes in protein synthesis?
tRNA
hnRNA
rRNA
mRNA
snRNA
Question
32 of 45
What kind of virus is HIV, the AIDS virus)?
a herpes virus
a paramyxovirus
a retrovirus
a complex virus
a provirus
Question
33 of 45
HIV delivers its greatest damage to __________.
the adrenal glands
pancreatic cells
nervous tissue
gametes
white blood cells
Question
34 of 45
HIV is responsible for _____.
PKU
TB
STD
CPR
AIDS
Question
35 of 45
Restriction enzymes __________.
edit proteins
cut DNA at specific sites
stop transcription
bind together strands of DNA
bind RNA fragments together
Question
36 of 45
Gel electrophoresis sorts DNA molecules on the basis of their __________.
nucleotide sequence
solubility in water
ability to bind to mRNA
solubility in the gel
size
Question
37 of 45
Which of the following areas of research will benefit from the human genome project?
understanding human evolution
understanding human embryonic development
improving the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of heart disease, cancer, and other common ailments
All of the choices are correct.
None of the choices are correct.
Question
38 of 45
Which of the following best defines the term transgenic animal?
an animal that is the first of its kind to bear a particular allele
an animal in which a genetic defect has been corrected using recombinant DNA therapy
an animal containing a gene from a third “parent,” which may even be another species
an animal containing genes from both its parents
an animal containing genes from three or more species
Question
39 of 45
Genetic variation within a population is developed and maintained because of __________.
random mutations
recombination because of sexual reproduction
crossing over
All of the above
None of these are valid ways of creating variation
Question
40 of 45
The prime goal of current work in genetic engineering is to __________.
eliminate antibiotic resistance in bacteria
isolate disease-causing plasmids in bacteria
modify cells to correct a defect or produce a functional product
transfer genes from viruses to other cells
study only cancer and bring about a cure
Question
41 of 45
Viruses that infect bacteria are ______.
retroviruses
enveloped viruses
emerging viruses
proviruses
bacteriophages
Question
42 of 45
Which of these can act as a vector to introduce new genes into a cell?
humulin
GM
PCR
clones
plasmids
Question
43 of 45
Which of the following is a major category of animal tissue?
epithelial
plasma
bone
cardiac
neurons
Question
44 of 45
Maintaining the volume and composition of body fluids is the direct responsibility of which of the following systems?
integumentary
immune
digestive
urinary
respiratory
Question
45 of 45
Which of the following organs is NOT in the abdominal cavity?
stomach
liver
intestine
appendix
heart
Part2
1 of 45
The basic structural and functional part of the kidney is the __________.
Bowman’s capsule
nephron
glomerulus
urinary bladder
ascending aorta
Question
2 of 45
Which one of the following types of tissue stores fat in the body?
blood
cartilage
bone
adipose
fibrous connective tissue
Question
3 of 45
Which of the following is true of a typical skeletal muscle?
Contraction is involuntary.
It is found in the walls of organs such as the digestive tract.
Its fibers do not have a striped appearance under the microscope.
It can be enlarged by exercise.
It is only found in heart tissue.
Question
4 of 45
Which type of tissue forms a communication and coordination system within the body?
nervous
blood
epithelial
connective
muscle
Question
5 of 45
Homeostasis __________.
is the maintenance of a constant internal state
only comes into play when you are ill
is a pathological condition
is the maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment
is the way the internal environment influences the external environment
Question
6 of 45
What are the four fundamental types of body tissues?
connective, cardiac, nervous, and adipose tissue.
connective, epithelial, nervous, and muscle tissue.
epithelial, hormonal, cellular, and bone tissue.
epithelial, glandular, muscle, and nervous tissue.
connective, neurons, muscle, and cartilage tissue.
Question
7 of 45
What is the main function of connective tissue?
support
movement
protection
response to stimuli
covering
Question
8 of 45
Which of the following is NOT a function of the skin?
protection from invasion by bacteria
temperature regulation
sensing the world around us
protection from physical injury
production of hormones promoting tanning
Question
9 of 45
What are the two main divisions of the skeletal system?
cranial and axial
vertebral and appendicular
appendicular and axial
axial and articular
articular and cranial
Question
10 of 45
Which of the following carry incoming messages toward the cell body of a neuron?
axons
dendrites
actin filaments
myosin filaments
supporting cells
Question
11 of 45
The four stages of food processing are, in order:
ingestion, absorption, elimination, digestion
ingestion, elimination, digestion, absorption
ingestion, digestion, absorption, elimination
digestion, absorption, ingestion, elimination
elimination, absorption, digestion, ingestion
Question
12 of 45
Once an action potential is triggered, the first major chemical change is __________.
a reversal of the membrane polarity, with the interior of the cell becoming positive
a reversal of the membrane polarity, with the interior of the cell becoming negative
an increase in the negative charge inside the neuron
an increase in the positive charge inside the neuron
propagation of an impulse
Question
13 of 45
The function of the sphincter at the downstream end of the stomach is to __________.
retain acid chime in the stomach until pepsin digestion is complete
release bile into the duodenum when chime is present
release pancreatic secretions into the duodenum when chime is present
release bile and pancreatic secretions into the duodenum when chime is present
release acid chime into the duodenum in periodic squirts
Question
14 of 45
Muscles are connected to bones by ______.
thick filaments
ligaments
tendons
other muscles
myofibrils
Question
15 of 45
A thick filament consists of ______.
actin
actin and regulatory proteins
myosin
myosin and regulatory filaments
actin and myosin
Question
16 of 45
When the wall of the stomach fails to protect itself from erosion by gastric juice, the result is __________.
heartburn
reverse peristalsis
a duodenal ulcer
nausea
a gastric ulcer
Question
17 of 45
Most nutrient absorption occurs in which part of the digestive system?
stomach
liver
pancreas
small intestine
large intestine
Question
18 of 45
Which of the following is a junction between two neurons?
Schwann cell
Chemical synapse
Node of Ranvier
Sodium gate
Polarity space
Question
19 of 45
Which of the following organs of the digestive system is different from the other four because it does NOT produce any secretions that aid in the digestive process?
stomach
liver
esophagus
pancreas
Important secretions are released by all of the above organs.
Question
20 of 45
Outnumbering neurons by up to 50 to 1, which cells protect, insulate, and reinforce neurons?
sensory cells
motor cells
axon cells
satellite cells
supporting cells
Question
21 of 45
All veins carry __________.
blood toward the heart
interstitial fluid
blood away from the heart
oxygen-rich blood
oxygen-poor blood
Question
22 of 45
Trace the path of a red blood cell in a circuit that takes it from the capillary bed of the right kidney to the capillary bed of the left kidney.
capillary bed of right kidney….venules….veins….right atrium….right ventricle….pulmonary arteries….capillaries of lungs….pulmonary veins….left atrium….left ventricle….aorta….arteries….arterioles…. capillary bed of left kidney
capillary bed of right kidney….venules….veins….right atrium….right ventricle…. pulmonary veins….capillaries of lungs….pulmonary arteries….left atrium….left ventricle…..aorta….arteries….arterioles….capillary bed of left kidney
capillary bed of right kidney….venules….v eins…..left atrium….left ventricle…. pulmonary arteries….capillaries of lungs….pulmonary veins….right atrium…. right ventricle….aorta….arteries…..arterioles….capillary bed of left kidney
capillary bed of right kidney….arterioles….arteries….aorta….right atrium….right ventricle….pulmonary arteries….capillaries of lungs….pulmonary veins….left atrium ….left ventricle….veins….venules….capillary bed of left kidney
capillary bed of right kidney….venules….veins….left atrium….left ventricle…. pulmonary veins….capillaries of lungs….pulmonary arteries….right atrium…. right ventricle….aorta….arteries….arterioles….capillary bed of left kidney
Question
23 of 45
When you examine fluid that you have drawn from a blood vessel, you find that it is relatively high in carbon dioxide and waste products. Assuming that the fluid comes from a healthy individual, you conclude that the blood vessel from which you have drawn the blood could have been __________.
a venule
an artery
an arteriole
the aorta
either an artery or an arteriole
Question
24 of 45
White blood cells play a particularly important role in __________.
carrying oxygen
carrying carbon dioxide
blood clotting
hemoglobin transport
fighting infections
Question
25 of 45
Temperature regulation, hormone distribution, and exchanging nutrients and wastes with the interstitial fluid are all functions of the _____ system.
respiratory
digestive
immune
circulatory
nervous
Question
26 of 45
Animals need oxygen because it __________.
plays a role in obtaining energy from food
counterbalances the CO2 in the atmosphere
helps animals synthesize proteins
is necessary to make CO2
is needed to deliver hemoglobin to all the cells in the body
Question
27 of 45
In the human respiratory system, gas exchange occurs across the cells of the _____.
diaphragm
trachea
bronchi
pharynx
alveoli
Question
28 of 45
When you hold your breath, which of the following blood gas changes leads initially to the urge to breathe again?
rising oxygen level
rising carbon dioxide level
falling oxygen level
falling carbon dioxide level
both rising carbon dioxide level and falling oxygen levels
Question
29 of 45
Which of the following is one of the body’s first lines of defense against infection?
a group of nonspecific antibodies
several nonspecific amino acid toxins
several nonspecific obstacles such as skin and mucous membranes
increased production of certain hormones and changes in the blood circulation
an increasing in the breathing rate
Question
30 of 45
When you cut yourself, the damaged cells immediately release which of the following chemical alarm signals?
interferon
complement
histamine
pyrogens
anti-interferon
Question
31 of 45
Why do diseases involving widespread infection usually result in a fever?
The rapid multiplication of the invading microorganisms results in extra heat production.
The inflammatory and immune responses result in extra heat production.
The invading microorganisms trick the brain’s temperature control center into raising the temperature so they can grow better.
The brain’s temperature control center responds to inflammation by creating a hot environment unfavorable to microorganisms.
Fevers insure that you will stay in bed longer so that your body can recover from the illness.
Question
32 of 45
The appendix, bone marrow, thymus, and spleen are all parts of the __________ system.
immune
circulatory
excretory
renal
digestive
Question
33 of 45
Antibodies __________.
are shaped like the letter B
are generalists in that any antibody can bind to any antigen
consist of three polypeptide chains
assist in destroying particular antigens
All of the above are true
Question
34 of 45
Hormones regulate __________.
growth
reproduction
water balance
metabolism
all of the above
Question
35 of 45
Which of the following best describes the relationship of insulin to glucagon?
They work together to prepare the body to deal with stress.
Insulin stimulates the pancreas to secrete glucagon.
High levels of insulin inhibit pancreatic secretion of glucagon.
They are antagonistic hormones.
Insulin is a steroid hormone; glucagon is a protein hormone.
Question
36 of 45
What moves the human egg through the oviduct?
the beating of the egg’s cilia
the beating of the egg’s flagella
rhythmic contractions of the oviduct
rhythmic contractions of the uterus
the beating of cilia in the oviduct
Question
37 of 45
In a human male reproductive system:
a circumcision removes a portion of the scrotum.
the vas deferens conducts sperm between the testis and epididymis.
the sperm travel through the urethra during ejaculation.
sperm mature in the prostate gland.
sperm are produced in the bladder and released through the scrotum.
Question
38 of 45
A vaccine contains __________.
a killed pathogen
weakened pathogen
non-infective fragments of a pathogen
all of the above may be used in a vaccine
Vaccines only contain genetically-modified virus particles
Question
39 of 45
Oxygen moves from the alveoli to the bloodstream __________.
because the concentration of oxygen is greater in alveoli than in the blood
mainly due to the activity of carbonic anhydrase in the red blood cells
because there is more oxygen in the blood than in the bloodstream
through active transport through the cell membrane
to escape from the body as a waste product
Question
40 of 45
Which of the following is NOT a true statement about the human female?
She produces all the eggs that she ever will before she is born.
She will normally produce more gametes than her male counterpart.
It is possible that more than one egg will be released at ovulation.
The process of meiosis may take 30 to 50 years to complete.
The ovary is the primary reproductive organ.
Question
41 of 45
Most of the oxygen in the blood is transported by __________.
platelets
plasma
platelets
hemoglobin
serotonin
Question
42 of 45
The correct term to describe the production of the human sperm is __________.
spermogenerator
oogenesis
spermatogenesis
sperm-production
gametogeneric
Question
43 of 45
In vitro fertilization __________.
can be used to select the sex of an embryo
permits the screening of embryos for genetic defects
can use eggs that have been frozen
all of the above
none of the above
Question
44 of 45
A vasectomy __________.
prevents the production of sperm in the testes
prevents the production of semen
prevents the movement of sperm into the urethra
prevents a man from having an erection
is an effective method to prevent the transmission of sexually transmitted diseases
Question
45 of 45
Why are human testes located in an external sac rather than in the abdominal cavity?
to shorten the distance that semen must travel during ejaculation
to shorten the distance that sperm must swim during insemination
so the testes can be kept at a constant temperature
so the testes can be kept cooler than the body’s interior
so the testes can enlarge at sexual maturity
Part3
What are the four main types of tissue? What are the characteristics of each type and how do they function in the body? Give an example of where you would find each type in the body.
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