10 Jun BIO 234 – In some cases the epiphyseal plate
Question
37) In some cases the epiphyseal plate of the long bones of children closes too early. What might
be the cause?
A) overproduction of thyroid hormone
B) elevated levels of sex hormones
C) too much vitamin D in the diet
D) osteoblast activity exceeds osteoclast activity
38) It is thought that remodeling or bone growth is in response to the forces placed on it. Which of
the following hypotheses may explain how mechanical forces communicate with cells
responsible for bone remodeling?
A) Increase in the synthesis of growth hormone directs the remodeling process.
B) Vitamin D enhances the remodeling process.
C) Bone deposition by osteoclasts is responsible for remodeling.
D) Electrical signals direct the remodeling process.
39) Normal bone formation and growth are dependent on the adequate intake of ________.
A) calcium, phosphate, and vitamin D
B) potassium, phosphate, and vitamin D
C) sodium, calcium, and vitamin E
D) vitamin D, phosphate, and chloride
40) Which fracture would be least likely in a 92-year-old?
A) compression
B) greenstick
C) comminuted
D) spiral
41) _____________ are not one of the four cell types that populate bone tissue in adults.
A) Osteoblasts
B) Mesenchymal cells
C) Osteocytes
D) Osteoprogenitor cells
42) Ostealgia is ________________.
A) a defect called clubfoot
B) a disease of the bone
C) pain in a bone
D) fractured bone
43) A fibrous joint that is a peg-in-socket is called a ________ joint.
A) syndesmosis
B) suture
C) synchondrosis
D) gomphosis
44) The cruciate ligaments of the knee ________.
A) tend to run parallel to one another
B) are also called collateral ligaments
C) prevent hyperextension of the knee
D) assist in defining the range of motion of the leg
44) If a patient was suffering from bursitis, this condition would be designated as inflammation of
a(n) ________.
A) sesamoid bone found at a joint
B) cavity within a long bone
C) small sac containing fluid
D) articular cartilage
45) An immovable joint found only between skull bones is called a ________.
A) suture
B) condyle
C) cartilaginous joint
D) synovial joint
46) Articular cartilage found at the ends of the long bones serves to ________.
A) attach tendons
B) produce red blood cells (hemopoiesis)
C) provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints
D) form the synovial membrane
47) A joint united by dense fibrocartilaginous tissue that usually permits a slight degree of movement is a ________.
A) suture
B) syndesmosis
C) symphysis
D) gomphosis
48) On the basis of structural classification, which joint is fibrous connective tissue?
A) symphysis
B) synchondrosis
C) pivot
D) syndesmosis
49) Connective tissue sacs lined with synovial membranes that act as cushions in places where
friction develops are called ________.
A) menisci
B) bursae
C) ligaments
D) tendons
50) Articulations permitting only slight degrees of movement are ________.
A) amphiarthroses
B) synarthroses
C) diarthroses
D) synovial joints
51) ________ are cartilaginous joints.
A) Syndesmoses
B) Sutures
C) Synchondroses
D) Gomphoses
52) The gliding motion of the wrist is accomplished because of the ________ joint.
A) hinge
B) plane
C) pivot
D) condyloid
53) The ligaments that protect the alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles and limit the
movement of the femur anteriorly and posteriorly are called ________.
A) cruciate ligaments
B) patellar ligaments
C) anterior ligaments
D) tibial collateral ligaments
54) Bending your head back until it hurts is an example of ________.
A) flexion
B) extension
C) hyperextension
D) circumduction
55) In the classification of joints, which of the following is true?
A) Immovable joints are called amphiarthroses.
B) All synovial joints are freely movable.
C) Synarthrotic joints are slightly movable.
D) In cartilaginous joints, a joint cavity is present.
56) A joint that is known as a suture is found ________.
A) in the skull only
B) in areas most prone to fracture
C) where functionally it is amphiarthrotic
D) in areas where bones have not yet closed
57) Synarthrotic joints ________.
A) are found at the junction of the epiphysis and diaphysis of growing bone
B) are cartilaginous joints
C) permit essentially no movement
D) have large joint cavities
58) Fibrous joints are classified as ________.
A) pivot, hinge, and ball and socket
B) symphysis, sacroiliac, and articular
C) hinge, saddle, and ellipsoidal
D) sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses
59) In symphysis joints the articular surfaces of the bones are covered with ________.
A) hyaline cartilage
B) synovial membranes
C) fibrocartilage
D) tendon sheaths
60) Synovial fluid is present in joint cavities of freely movable joints. Which of the following
statements is true about this fluid?
A) It contains enzymes only.
B) It contains lactic acid.
C) It contains hyaluronic acid.
D) It contains hydrochloric acid.
61) Which of the following statements defines synchondroses?
A) amphiarthrotic joints designed for strength and flexibility
B) interphalangeal joints
C) joints that permit angular movements
D) cartilaginous joints where hyaline cartilage unites the ends of bones
62) Menisci refer to ________.
A) cavities lined with cartilage
B) small sacs containing synovial fluid
C) semilunar cartilage pads
D) tendon sheaths
63) Which of the following is a true statement regarding gliding movements?
A) Gliding movements occur at the intercarpal and intertarsal joints.
B) Gliding movements allow flexibility of the upper limbs.
C) Gliding movements are multiaxial.
D) An example of a gliding movement is nodding one?s head.
64) When one is moving a limb away from the median plane of the body along the frontal plane, it
is called ________.
A) abduction
B) adduction
C) inversion
D) dorsiflexion
65) The terms inversion and eversion pertain only to ________.
A) the hands
B) the feet
C) the arms
D) the hands and the fee
66) The hip joint is a good example of a(n) ________ synovial joint.
A) nonaxial
B) uniaxial
C) biaxial
D) multiaxial
67) Movement allowed in a pivot joint is known as ________.
A) biaxial movement
B) flexion
C) uniaxial rotation
D) extension
68) Compared to the shoulder, displacements of the hip joints are ________.
A) common due to the weight-bearing the hip endures
B) rare because of the ligament reinforcement
C) common in all people who are overweight
D) rare because the rotator cuff stabilizes the hip joint
69) The ________ ligament holds the radius to the ulna at the proximal end.
A) annular
B) ulnar collateral
C) radial collateral
D) iliofemoral
Answer:
70) Which ligament of the knee initiates the knee-jerk reflex when tapped?
A) the patellar ligament
B) the medial patellar retinacula
C) the lateral patellar retinacula
D) the extracapsular ligament
Answer:
71) Football players often sustain lateral blows to the extended knee. Which of the ligaments is/are
damaged as a result?
A) oblique popliteal and extracapsular ligament
B) suprapatellar
C) arcuate popliteal and the posterior cruciate
D) medial collateral, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate
Answer:
72) Which of the following conditions is generally considered a noninflammatory type of arthritis?
A) bursitis
B) tendonitis
C) osteoarthritis
D) rheumatoid arthritis
Answer:
73) Gouty arthritis is a painful condition caused by ________.
A) excessive blood levels of uric acid deposited as crystals in the soft tissue joints
B) a disorder in the body?s immune system resulting in destruction of joints
C) a thickening of the synovial membrane and a decrease in fluid production
D) a bacterial infection in the bursae
Answer:
74) When a ballerina points the toes, it is known as ________.
A) circumduction
B) plantar flexion
C) pronation
D) protraction
Answer:
75) Which of the following is a true statement?
A) The head of the humerus articulates with the acromion process.
B) The greater tubercule of the humerus articulates at the coracoid process of the scapula.
C) The rotator cuff is responsible for the flexible extensions at the elbow joint.
D) The annular ligament surrounds the head of the radius.
Answer:
76) Multiaxial joints of the body include ________.
A) the knee and elbow
B) the ankle and wrist
C) the hip and shoulder
D) intercarpal and intertarsal joints
Answer:
77) Presence of a synovial cavity, articular cartilage, synovial membrane, and ligaments are
characteristics of what type of joint?
A) suture
B) synchondrosis
C) symphysis
D) hinge joint
Answer:
78) Extracapsular ligaments stabilizing the knee include ________.
A) the patellar ligament extending from femur to patella
B) lateral and medial collateral ligaments preventing lateral or medial angular movements
C) cruciate ligaments, which help secure the articulating bones together
D) the oblique popliteal crossing the knee anteriorly
Answer:
79) Which is correct about development of joints?
A) Joints develop in parallel with bones.
B) By the end of the fourth week, fetal synovial joints resemble adult joints.
C) All fibrous joints are in the adult form by the time of birth.
D) Joints develop independent of bone growth.
Answer:
80) An example of an interosseus fibrous joint is ________.
A) the clavicle and the scapula at the distal ends
B) the radius and ulna along its length
C) between the vertebrae
D) between the humerus and the glenoid cavity
Answer:
81) Which of the following statements best describes angular movements?
A) They allow movement only in one plane.
B) They allow movement in several planes.
C) They occur only between bones with flat articular processes.
D) They change (increase or decrease) the angle between two bones.
Answer:
82) Saddle joints have concave and convex surfaces. Name the two bones of the hand that
articulate to form a saddle joint.
A) The scaphoid of the index finger and the triquetral of the middle finger.
B) The trapezium of the ring finger and the capitate of the fourth finger.
C) The scaphoid of the middle finger and lunate of the index finger.
D) The trapezium of the carpal bone and the thumb?s metacarpal.
Answer:
83) Tendon sheaths ________.
A) act as friction-reducing structures
B) are lined with dense irregular connective tissue
C) form channels for tendons
D) help anchor the tendon to the muscle
Answer:
84) Lyme disease is a bacterial disease transmitted by the bite of a ________.
A) flea
B) mosquito
C) fly
D) tick
Answer:
85) With muscular dystrophy ________.
A) muscles decrease in size due to loss of fat and connective tissue
B) muscle fibers degenerate and atrophy
C) most forms do not appear to be inherited
D) most cases appear in young females
Answer:
86) Most muscles contain ________.
A) muscle fibers of the same type
B) a mixture of fiber types
C) a predominance of slow oxidative fibers
D) a predominance of fast oxidative fibers
Answer:
87) Fatigued muscle cells that recover rapidly are the products of ________.
A) intense exercise of long duration
B) intense exercise of short duration
C) slow exercise of long duration
D) slow exercise of short duration
Answer:
88) The strongest muscle contractions are normally achieved by ________.
A) increasing stimulus above the threshold
B) increasing stimulus above the treppe stimulus
C) increasing the stimulation up to the maximal stimulus
D) recruiting small and medium muscle fibers
Answer:
89) Which of the following would be recruited later in muscle stimulation when contractile strength increases?
A) motor units with the longest muscle fibers
B) many small motor units with the ability to stimulate other motor units
C) large motor units with small, highly excitable neurons
D) motor units with larger, less excitable neurons
Answer:
90) Which of the following is not a usual result of resistance exercise?
A) increase in the efficiency of the respiratory system
B) increase in the efficiency of the circulatory system
C) increase in the number of muscle cells
D) increase in the number of myofibrils within the muscle cells
Answer:
91) In skeletal muscle contraction, calcium apparently acts to ________.
A) increase the action potential transmitted along the sarcolemma
B) release the inhibition on Z discs
C) remove the blocking action of tropomyosin
D) cause ATP to bind to actin
Answer:
92) Calcium ions bind to the ________ molecule in skeletal muscle cells.
A) actin
B) tropomyosin
C) troponin
D) myosin
Answer:
93) Myoglobin ________.
A) breaks down glycogen
B) is a protein involved in the direct phosphorylation of ADP
C) stores oxygen in muscle cells
D) produces the end plate potential
Answer:
94) An elaborate network of membranes in skeletal muscle cells that functions in calcium storage
is the ________.
A) sarcoplasmic reticulum
B) mitochondria
C) intermediate filament network
D) myofibrillar network
Answer:
95) A sarcomere is ________.
A) the nonfunctional unit of skeletal muscle
B) the area between two Z discs
C) the area between two intercalated discs
D) the wavy lines on the cell seen in the microscope
Answer:
96) Immediately following the arrival of the stimulus at a skeletal muscle cell there is a short
period called the ________ period during which the events of excitation -contraction coupling
occur.
A) contraction
B) relaxation
C) latent
D) refractory
Answer:
97) Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by ________.
A) forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin
B) forming a chemical compound with actin
C) inducing a conformational change in the myofilaments
D) storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP
Answer:
98) After nervous stimulation of the muscle cell has ceased, the calcium ________.
A) is destroyed by cholinesterase
B) is chemically bound to the filaments
C) level in the cytoplasm drops
D) is actively pumped into the extracellular fluid for storage until the next contraction
Answer:
99) The major function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle contraction is to ________.
A) make and store phosphocreatine
B) synthesize actin and myosin myofilaments
C) provide a source of myosin for the contraction process
D) regulate intracellular calcium concentration
Answer:
100) The striations of a skeletal muscle cell are produced, for the most part, by ________.
A) a difference in the thickness of the sarcolemma
B) the arrangement of myofilaments
C) the sarcoplasmic reticulum
D) the T tubules
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