11 Jun Bio 33 Final Exam – Which of the following does not apply
Question
Name: …………………………………………………..; Section: ………………………..; Date:……………. Bio 33 Final Exam Questions; Fall 2013. Answer in 2 hours. Please return the
exam with Scantron.**
1. Which of the following does not apply technology?
a. Make a heart to beat.
b. Improve memory.
c. Reduce the impact of Alzheimer.
d. Make crops pest resistant.
e. None above.
2. The super fast growing salmon was developed using the following:
a. A gene from a Chinook.
b. A promoter from an ocean pout.
c. Eggs from an Atlantic salmon.
d. All above.
e. None above.
3. A cell must have the following, except:
a. Plasma membrane.
b. Cytoplasm.
c. Chromosome.
d. Ribosomes.
e. Cell wall.
4. The role of mitochondria in a cell is to:
a. Guard the cell.
b. Destroy invading virus.
c. Produce hormones.
d. Burn sugar.
e. Photosynthesis.
5. A chloroplast does the following:
a. Produces water.
b. Generates CO2.
c. Heals cellular wounds.
d. Regulates temperature.
e. Makes sugar.
6. The following is not true in a human body:
a. Human skin carries no bacteria.
b. Ten percent of the cells in human body are bacterial cells.
c. Most of the bacterial cells in human body are in the brain.
d. Bacterial cells are 10 times more than human cells in a human body.
e. There are more plant cells in a human body than animal cells.
1 7. Which of the following is needed from a human egg donor:
a. Must be a Harvard graduate.
b. Must speak English.
c. Must be an alcoholic.
d. A benevolent grandmother.
e. Flexibility to travel.
8. Which of the following was incorrect?
a. Use of contraception was once banned in USA.
b. Sperm bank stores sperm in liquid nitrogen.
c. Sperm can be sorted for either male or female offspring.
d. Sperm collected at younger age are better.
e. Sperm donor needs help following the procedure.
9. The UN Guiding principle for Organ Transplantation suggests:
a. The physicians of the donor and recipient must not be separate and independent.
b. Parents may consent on behalf of a live minor to be a donor.
c. Live donors may be persuaded for organ donation.
d. Organs will be given to patients based on medical need.
e. Older patients will get preference over younger patients.
10. All the factors below are important in predicting how population size might change,
EXCEPT:
a. carrying capacity
b. number of individuals already present
c. age structure
d. growth rate
e. physical appearance of individuals
11. In stage III of the Survivorship Pattern the mortality rate is:
a. High at last part of the life span.
b. Equal at every stage of the life span
c. High at early and late parts of the life span.
d. Lowest at the early part of the life span.
e. Highest at the early part of the life span.
12. What possible outcome(s) can result from intense competition between two species?
a. Both species die off
b. One species will include the other.
c. They will partition resources so that competition is minimized and tolerable.
d. a and b above
e. a and c above 2 13. The following are primary producers, except:
a. Cyanobacteria.
b. Euglena.
c. Protista.
d. Plantae.
e. Fungi.
14. Which of the following is not true?
a. Testosterone generates a negative feedback.
b. Estrogen generates a positive feedback.
c. Oxytocin generates a positive feedback.
d. Insulin generates a negative feedback.
e. Glucagon produces a negative feedback.
15. The following happens in bioenergetics, except:
a. Energy is harnessed by the primary producers.
b. Energy is transferred from one trophic level to another.
c. Each energy transfer requires electricity.
d. Each transfer loses 90% of the stored energy.
e. Energy can be transferred between animals.
16. The following are examples of ecosystems, except:
a. Planet earth.
b. Lake Victoria.
c. Great lakes.
d. Jamaica Bay.
e. New York aquarium.
17. The following happens in homeostasis, except:
a. Ovulation.
b. Maintain sugar levels.
c. Salt water balance.
d. Oxygen concentration.
e. Temperature regulation.
18. The following are true, except:
a. High sugar stimulates insulin production.
b. Low sugar stimulates glucagon production.
c. Insulin is produced in the pancreas.
d. Glucagon is produced in the heart.
e. Insulin reduces sugar from blood. 3 19. Cell theory suggests that every cell comes from a:
a. Non exiting cell.
b. Previous cell.
c. Bacteria.
d. Virus.
e. None above.
20. Which of the following is not a part of the scientific method?
a. Theory of relativity.
b. Hypothesis.
c. Experimentation.
d. Data analysis.
e. Conclusion.
21. The limitations of science is reduced by the applying:
a. A microscope.
b. Computer.
c. Electron microscope.
d. Wireless.
e. All of the above.
22. No other cells, but only the plant cells have the following:
a. Plasma membrane.
b. Nucleus.
c. Ribosomes.
d. Golgi apparatus.
e. Cell wall of cellulose.
23. Which of the following is incorrect?
a. Most bacterial cells have cell walls.
b. Plant cells have cell walls.
c. Fungi cells have cell walls
d. Animal cells have Golgi apparatus.
e. Fungi cells have chloroplasts.
24. Science seeks to:
a. Understand the nature.
b. Make computers.
c. Produce GM crops.
d. Fast moving jet engine.
e. Reduce CO2 emission. 4 25. Biological inheritance includes inheriting:
a. Landed property from parents.
b. Language from parents.
c. Religion from parents.
d. Profession from parents.
e. Hair color from parents.
26. The following scientists first demonstrated inheritance of DNA:
a. Gregor Mendel
b. Frederick Griffith in 1927.
c. Avery et al. in 1944.
d. a and b above.
e. b and c above.
27. Which of the following confirmed inheritance of DNA:
a. Boiled Diplococcus pneumonia mixed with a non Diplococcus pneumonia.
b. Extracts from Diplococcus pneumonia mixed with a non Diplococcus pneumonia.
c. DNA extracts from Diplococcus pneumonia injected into a mouse.
d. DNA extracts from Diplococcus pneumonia mixed with a non Diplococcus pneumonia.
e. RNA extracts from Diplococcus pneumonia mixed with a non Diplococcus pneumonia.
28. Dolly was cloned using the genetic material from a:
a. Brain cell of a sheep.
b. Egg of a sheep.
c. Sperm of a sheep.
d. Mammary cell of a sheep.
e. Back faced sheep.
29. A major cause for microevolution is due to:
a. Mutations in the DNA while being copied.
b. Evolutions under a microscope.
c. Changes in microscopic organisms.
d. Survival of the black colored moth population.
e. Survival from the Bubonic plague.
30. An example of macroevolution could be:
a. Survival of only HIV resistant human population.
b. Human population survived after the Bubonic plague.
c. Organisms sustained after a prolonged years of darkness.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above. 5 31. In biological classification the following is true:
a. Aquatic algae are closer to fish that plants.
b. Mushrooms are close to plants than animals.
c. Chimpanzee and baboons are closer to tigers and lions than to human.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
32. In scientific naming the extant human being are called:
a. Escherichia coli.
b. Homo erectus.
c. Homo neanderthals.
d. Homo sapiens.
e. None of the above.
33. In biological classification, human being belongs to the domain:
a. Eukarya.
b. Eubacteria.
c. Archea.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
34. Which of the following is incorrect in Biological classification?
a. Domain is bigger than Phylum.
b. Class is bigger than Order.
c. Family is bigger than Genus.
d. Kingdom is bigger than domain.
e. None of the above
35. Bioethics guidelines follow all, except:
a. Applications of biology and medicine.
b. Views from faiths.
c. Rejects Judaism, Christianity and Islam.
d. Hinduism, Buddhism and Jainism.
e. None of the above.
36. Biotechnology may achieve the following, except:
a. Resolve food crisis.
b. Remove pressure on threatened species.
c. Solve Alzheimer.
d. Stop memory loss.
e. Eliminate florists. 6 37. The relationship between a predator and prey is best illustrated by:
a. a zebra eating grass
b. a lion eating a tiger
c. a snake eating a mouse
d. a vulture eating road kill
e. a fish eating a bird
38. What adjustment(s) herbivores made to compensate for the difficulty of digesting plant
material?
a. Herbivores spend more time eating than carnivores.
b. Herbivores spend more time processing food than carnivores.
c. Herbivore digestive systems are often more complex than those of carnivores.
d. Herbivores often have multiple stomachs.
e. all of the above.
39. What adaptations have herbivores developed to compensate for the seasonal variation in food
supplies often experienced by these animals?
a. Some fast during seasons of scarcity
b. Some migrate seasonally
c. Some resort to cannibalism
d. Some convert to become carnivores
e. all of the above
40. An interaction between a pair of species that becomes so intimate that one or both become
dependent on the other is called a(n):
a. Homeostasis
b. Osmosis
c. Symbiosis
d. Lordosis
e. Symmetry
41. A relationship in which both partners are exclusively dependent on each other is known as:
a. parasitism
b. cannibalism
c. mutualism
d. commensalism
e. communism
42. Biological communities and their interactions with biotic and abiotic factors affecting them is
defined as a(n):
a. population
b. ecosystem
c. ecology
d. biosis
e. community
7 43. Ecology is NOT all of the following EXCEPT:
a. a social cause
b. the same as environment
c. the study of organisms in relation to their environment
d. a natural history
e. a set of regulations
44. Wich of the following is corrcet? The atmosphere contains:
a. Nitrogen 48%
b. Oxygen 20.9%
c. Argon 9%
d. Carbon di oxide 4%
e. Water ~ 10%
45. If a population roughly doubles in the course of 50 years, its average annual growth rate
would be close to:
a. 1 %
b. 2%
c. 5 %
d. 10%
e. 20%
46. Which of the following countries is most likely to be showing the lowest natural increase in
population growth rate?
a. Afghanistan
b. Mexico
c. United States
d. Japan
e. Chile
47. If 40% of the world’s carrying capacity can support 6 billion people, then the world can
support:
a. 8 billion
b. 9 billion
c. 10 billion
d. 12 billion
e. 15 billion
48. Which of the following is not true about the Passenger Pigeon:
a. A migrating flock would cover 1 mile X 300 mile.
b. A migrating flock could darkened the sky for days.
c. They were nuisance to settlers.
d. The last one died in captivity in 2010.
e. None of the above.
8 49. Which of the following is not a true statement?
a. The Earth’s resources are limited.
b. Humans share the earth’s resources with all living things.
c. Human need has no impact on the nature.
d. The health of the biosphere is important to all of us.
e. All the above statements are true.
50. Which of the following is correct. Human activity today:
a. Degraded 39-50% of the Earth’s land surface.
b. Increased atmospheric CO2 by 30%.
c. Uses over 50% of surface fresh water.
d. Fixes over 50% nitrogen.
e. All of the above.
51. Human activity contributed to the following:
a. Transferred over 50% of the plant species in many islands.
b. Over 75% plants transferred on the continents.
c. Over 200 years, 20% bird species become extinct.
d. More than 22% of marine fisheries are over exploited.
e. All of the above.
52. The other common examples of pollutants are, except:
a. Sulfur oxides
b. Nitrogen oxides
c. Volatile organics
d. Photo oxidants
e. Parasites
53. The pH of the high acid rain area in record are:
a. 4.2- 4.4
b. 4.5 – 5.0
c. 5.1 – 5.5
d. 5.5 – 6.0
e. 6.1 – 6.5
54. What is the gross annual mortality rate per 1,000 of a population of 100,000 in which 1,000
individuals die in six months?
a. 0.1
b. 0.2
c. 2
d. 20
e. 200 9 55. A graph of exponential population growth can best be described as resembling to:
a. a rocket
b. the letter "J"
c. the letter "S"
d. the letter "U"
e. roller coaster
56. The collection of factors that limit growth are often referred to as:
a. Carrying height
b. Food
c. Water
d. Carrying capacity
e. abiotic factors
57. What information can be obtained from the plateau on a logistic growth curve?
a. death rate
b. birth rate
c. immigration rate
d. rate of growth
e. carrying capacity
58. The host of a parasite must always be:
a. dead
b. alive
c. smaller
d. lethal
e. anaerobic
59. The longest running war in human history has not involved nation fighting nation, but rather
farmers fighting pests. What are some of the measures used in the battle?
a. Using pesticides
b. Genetic engineering
c. Irrigation
d. a and b above
e, b and c above
60. The Ozone layer is located in the:
a. mesosphere.
b. lithosphere.
c. troposphere.
d. Stratosphere
e. none above 10 61. Each chlorine atom released from a CFC molecule can break:
a. 5-10 ozone molecules
b. 100 – 500 ozone molecules
c. 10,000 – 100,000 ozone molecules
d. 1,000,000 – 1,000,000,000 ozone molecules
e. None above
62. A thermal inversion is a situation where:
a. temperature decreases with increasing altitude.
b. temperature remains constant with increasing altitude.
c. temperature increases with increasing altitude.
d. vertical motions are enhanced.
e. air quality is good.
63. The consequence of burning fossil fuels is:
a. acid rain
b. global warming
c. the greenhouse effect
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
64. Which of the following is not a primary contributor to the greenhouse gas effect?
a. carbon dioxide b.
c.
d.
e. carbon monoxide
chlorofluorocarbons
methane gas
steam 65. Which part of the UV is absorbed by the ozone layer?
a. High energy UV light.
b. Low wavelength UV light
c. High wavelength UV light
d. a and b above
e. b and c above.
66. UV light destroys the following:
a. Ozone layer
b. CFC, chlorofluorocarbon
c. Chlorine
d. Fluorine
e. None above 11 67. If two of the offspring from the previous generation (F1) of pea plants are breed, what will
be the ratio of flower color in the offspring?
a. All purple.
b. All white.
c. 3 purple and 1 white.
d. 1 purple and 3 white.
e. 50 % purple and 50% white.
68. Which word(s) below describe(s) an organism that has two genetic unit factors (alleles)
identical for a particular trait?
a. homozygous
b. heterozygous
c. homozygous dominant
d. a and b, above
e. a and d, above.
69. What is the probability that a cross between two organisms of genotypes AaBb and AaBb
will produce an organism with genotypes AABB?
a. 1/16
b. 9/19
c. 3/16
d. a and b above
e. a and c above
70. Who is the Father of Modern Genetics?
a. Carl Correns
b. Charles Darwin
c. Gregor Mendel
d. Alfred Russel Wallace
e. Galileo
71. Which of the following specialized cells take part in reproduction in a sexually reproducing
organism?
a. sperm
b. eggs
c. gametes
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c
72. In a sexually reproducing organism, every trait is represented by:
a. one unit factor.
b. a pair of unit factors.
c. two pairs of unit factors.
d. all of the above.
e. none of the above.
12 73. In pea plants flowers, purple color is dominant over white. When a pure-breeding purple
flowered plant is crossed with a pure-breeding white flowered plant, what will be the flower
colors of the offspring?
a. All will have purple flowers.
b. Half of the plants will have purple and other half will have white flowers.
c. Every flower will have half purple and half white in color.
d. Flowers will be of light purple color.
e. Flowers will contain purple grains on white background.
74. When a person of blood type A marries another with blood type B, the potential offspring
will have:
a. blood type O.
b. blood type A.
c. blood type B.
d. blood type AB.
e. all of the above.
75. Two carriers (HbA/HbS) of the sickle-cell trait marry and have a child. What is the
probability that their child will suffer from sickle-cell anemia?
a. 100%.
b. 75%.
c. 50%.
d. 25%.
e. 0%.
76. In July, Jenny and her boyfriend John came to KPGCC (Kings Plaza Genetic Counseling
Center) to find out the probability for their children to be able to hear. Jenny was found carry
Ddee and John ddEe genotypes. What will be the probability for them to have every baby able
to hear? (Hint: A person must have a dominant D and a dominant E to be able to hear).
a. 100%.
b. 75%.
c. 50%.
d. 25%. e. 0%.
77. All of the following are considered phases of mitosis (active cell division) EXCEPT:
a. interphase
b. prophase
c. metaphase
d. anaphase
e. telophase 13 78. In what phase of the cell cycle DNA is replicated?
a. prophase
b. metaphase
c. interphase
d. anaphase
e. telophase
79. What are the Mendel’s laws of inheritance?
a. Law of dominance.
b. Law of independent assortment.
c. Law of super dominance.
d. a and b above.
e. a and c above.
80. Inheritance of human blood types A and B follows:
a. Law of dominance.
b. Law of independent assortment.
c. Law of super dominance.
d. Incomplete dominance.
e. Co-dominance.
81. As a rare instance, the City of New York observed a large portion of the students attending
one of their elementary schools are females. As a NYC employee, you were assigned to make a
survey of 100 families with two children each in the neighborhood. You found 10 families
having all boys, 35 families having all girls and 55 families having a boy and a girl. What
should be the expected number of families to have a boy and a girl out of 100 families?
a. 100 families.
b. 75 families.
c. 50 families.
d. 25 families.
e. 0 families.
82. When a red flowering four-o’clock plant was breed with a white flowering four-o’clock plant,
all F1 offspring flowered pink. This pattern of inheritance followed:
a. Law of dominance.
b. Law of independent assortment.
c. Law of super dominance.
d. Incomplete dominance.
e. Co-dominance. 14 83. Uncontrolled mitosis may cause:
a. oligostasis
b. superstasis
c. homeostasis
d. cancer
e. diabetes
84. A human cell has 23 pairs of chromosomes. At the end of meiosis, what will be the number
of chromosomes present per cell?
a. 92
b. 46
c. 23
d. 13
e. 12
85. A DNA molecule is transcribed into a:
a. mRNA
b. mDNA
c. protein
d. lipid
e. starch
86. An mRNA is translated into a:
a. fat molecule
b. starch
c. protein
d. vitamin
e. DNA
87. What DNA sequence would be complementary to the DNA sequence, AATGCATCGGA?
a. AATGCATCGGA
b. TTACGTAGCCT
c. UUACGUAGCCT
d. AAUGCAUCGGA
e. none of the other answers
88. Which of the following cannot damage DNA or change its structure causing mutations?
a. Thought power
b. UV or ultraviolet light
c. Environmental chemicals
d. Chemicals made by normal cell activities
e. Radiation 15 89. The following RNA codons are associated with the amino acids shown next to each: AAA
for lys; UCC for ser, UGA for stop, GGG for gly, UUC for phe.
If a DNA strand reads 5?AGG TTT AAG CCC ACT 3?, what will be the sequence of amino
acids translated related to this DNA strand?
a. phe-ser-lys-gly
b. phe-lys-gly-ser
c. ser-lys-phe-gly
d. ser- phe-lys-gly
e. lys-phe-ser-gly
90. The primary function of a DNA molecule in a cell is to:
a. separates the nucleus from the nucleolus
b. joins nucleotides together
c. stores genetic information for proteins to be made
d. serves as a template for making carbohydrates
e. travels from the nucleus to the cytoplasm to deliver information
91. The process of genetic recombination occurs in:
a. mitosis.
b. meiosis.
c. binary fission.
d. all the above.
e. none of the above.
92. What are the benefits a sexually reproducing organism obtains from meiosis?
a. Maintain the genome size.
b. Produces genetic recombination.
c. Develops genomic diversity.
d. Gives rise to a new individual.
e. All of the above.
93. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of mitosis?
a. growth
b. repair
c. asexual reproduction
d. cell replacement
e. genetic recombination
94. Which of the following structures is typical of the genetic material, DNA?
a. cubicle helix
b. triple helix
c. double helix
d. alpha helix
e. c and d
16 95. A DNA molecule is a polymer of:
a. amino acids.
b. fatty acids.
c. nucleotides.
d. nucleosides.
e. sugar.
96. A DNA molecule stores the following:
a. lipids
b. genetic information
c. memory of events
d. glucose
e. fructose
97. In which phase of mitosis do the sister chromatids separate?
a. prophase
b. anaphase
c. telophase
d. metaphase
e. Interphase
98. In which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up at the equator of the dividing cell?
a. metaphase
b. prophase
c. anaphase
d. telophase
e. interphase
99. The function of mitosis is for:
a. growth and repair
b. production of haploids cells from diploids cells
c. production of a zygote
d. asexual reproduction
e. both a and d
100. Escherichia coli follows the following process of cell replication:
a. Mitosis
b. Meiosis.
c. Binary fission.
d. Double vision.
e. Mono fission. All the best
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