BIOL 1103 A, N, T – PASS MOCK EXAM

11 Jun BIOL 1103 A, N, T – PASS MOCK EXAM

Question
PASS MOCK EXAM – FOR PRACTICE ONLY

Course: BIOL 1103 A, N, T Facilitator:

1. Which of the following processes can proceed in both the 5’ to 3’ direction and the 3’ to 5’ direction?

a. DNA gap repair

b. DNA transcription

c. DNA translation

d. DNA proofreading

e. None of the above

2. Which of the following is a correct match between monomer and polymer?

a. glucose and lipids

b. amino acids and polypeptide

c. nucleic acids and protein

d. nucleotides and lipids

e. none of the above

3. A compound that inhibits the activity of an enzyme without preventing the substrate from binding to the enzyme is likely a(n):

a. Competitive inhibitor

b. Noncompetitive inhibitor

c. Allosteric inhibitor

d. Feedback inhibitor

e. Both (b) and (c)

4. One of the most efficient way in which cells are able to increase the level of membrane fluidity is by:

a. Increasing the number of phospholipids in the membrane

b. Decreasing the number of glycolipids in the membrane

c. Decreasing the number of double bonds between membrane lipids

d. Increasing the number of desaturated phospholipids in the membrane

e. Increasing the temperature of the membrane

5. Which of the following types of transport is not energetically favourable but does not require ATP

a. Simple diffusion

b. Facilitated diffusion

c. Primary active transport

d. Secondary active transport

e. Exocytosis

6. Each of the following small molecules easily diffuses through the cell membrane EXCEPT:

a. glycerol

b. O2

c. H2O

d. glucose

e. N2

7. Which of the following structure function pairs in mismatched?

a. nucleolus, ribosome production

b. lysosome, intracellular digestion

c. ribosome, protein synthesis

d. golgi, protein trafficking

e. microtubule, muscle contraction

8. The process by which mitochondria and chloroplasts probably evolved is called:

a. exocytosis

b. endocytosis

c. endogenous translocation

d. exosymbiosis

e. endosymbiosis

9. In the following reaction, the carbon atom of carbon dioxide is _______________ to form glucose while the oxygen atom of water is _______________ to form oxygen:

6 CO2 + 6 H2O ? C6H12O6 + 6 O2

a. oxidized, oxidized

b. oxidized, reduced

c. reduced, oxidized

d. reduced, reduced

e. this equation does not depict an oxidation- reduction reaction

10. Cellulose is not good for human consumption because…

a. We cannot hydrolyze the beta 1-4 linkage

b. We cannot hydrolyze the beta 1-6 linkage

c. we cannot hydrolyze the alpha 1-4 linkage

d. we cannot hydrolyze the alpha 1-6 linkage

e. Cellulose is good for human consumption

11. What are the two secondary structures that amino acids form?

a. alpha pleated sheets and beta-helix

b. alpha-helix and gamma pleated sheets

c. alpha-helix and beta pleated sheets

d. alpha pleated sheets and gamma helix

e. chair and boat conformations

12. Upon chemical analysis, a particular protein was found to contain 59 amino acids. How many peptide bonds are present in this protein?

a. 30

b. 58

c. 59

d. 60

e. The secondary structure of the protein must be known to answer this question

13. If a piece of double stranded DNA has 32% thymine, how much cytosine does it have?

a. 32%

b. 64%

c. 18%

d. 34%

e. It is impossible to tell

14. If the ?G of a chemical reaction is negative and the change in entropy is positive, what can one conclude about the reaction?

a. It is endergonic.

b. It is exergonic.

c. It requires energy.

d. It is anabolic.

e. It will not reach equilibrium.

15. The Miller-Urey experiment…

a. Used an atmosphere rich in O2

b. Demonstrated that abiotic protein synthesis was possible

c. Did not require a source of energy

d. Did not require water as a reactant

e. Demonstrated that abiotic synthesis of amino acids was possible

16. Which statement about ATP synthesis is FALSE?

a. ATP is synthesized only in chloroplasts and mitochondria

b. ATP synthesis in the chloroplast occurs in the thylakoid region of this organelle

c. Proton motive force (proton gradient) drives the formation of ATP in mitochondria

d. ATP synthases are protein complexes that allow protons to cross membranes

e. Substrate level phosphorylation of ADP does not require ATP synthase to catalyse the reaction

17. Glycogen is…

a. A type of cholesterol

b. A Seine molecule

c. Another word for one glucose sugar

d. a disaccharide made up of two glucose monomers

e. none of the above

18. At the end of glycolysis, each molecule of glucose has yielded 2 molecules of _______, 2 molecules of ________, and a net of 2 molecules of _________.

a. FAD; NAD+; ADP

b. CO2; NAD+; ADP

c. lactic acid; ethanol; CO2

d. pyruvate, NADH, ATP

e. H2O; CO2; ATP

19. Explain why in anaerobic cells the ratio of pyruvate/ lactate is much less than 1 while under aerobic conditions the ratio of pyruvate/ lactate is much greater than 1.

a. under anaerobic conditions pyruvate is converted to carbon dioxide

b. in anaerobic conditions, pyruvate is converted to glucose using the energy of light

c. lactate is produced from pyruvate only under anaerobic conditions

d. lactate is the terminal electron acceptor under aerobic conditions

e. pyruvate is transported into mitochondria under anaerobic conditions

20. In the absence of oxygen, the primary purpose of fermentation is to:

a. produce amino acids for protein synthesis

b. generate a proton gradient for ATP synthesis

c. oxidize glucose to generate reduce electron carriers

d. regenerate NAD+ from NADH allowing glycolysis to continue

e. generate alcohol for beverages

21. Which of the following statements about mitochondria is false?

a. They contain an inner and an outer membrane.

b. The region enclosed by the inner membrane is termed the matrix.

c. They contain DNA and ribosomes.

d. They are an important site for energy production in cells.

e. They contain stacked internal grana.

22. The electron transport chain is located predominantly in the:

a. Outer membrane of the mitochondria

b. Intermembrane space of the mitochondria

c. Inner membrane of the mitochondria

d. Matrix of the mitochondria

e. Cytoplasm of the cell

23. What cellular compartment becomes acidic during mitochondrial electron transport?

a. Mitochondrial stroma

b. Cytoplasm

c. Endoplasmic reticulum

d. Space between inner and outer mitochondrial membranes

e. Thylakoid membranes

24. As a result of glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation and the citric acid cycle, only a small portion of the energy of glucose has been converted to ATP. At this point, the majority of the usable energy is contained in:

a. oxidized electron carriers NAD+ and FAD

b. carbon dioxide

c. pyruvate

d. acetyl coenzyme A

e. reduced electron carriers NADH and FADH2

25. The terminal electron acceptor during mitochondrial respiration is:

a. H20

b. NAD+

c. FAD

d. ATP

e. O2

26. During a heart attack, blood flowing to the heart muscle is interrupted by blockage of a coronary artery. How would you expect the metabolism in the heart to change?

a. oxidative phosphorylation would slow down in the mitochondria

b. the rate of production of lactic acid would be stimulated

c. the use of glucose by the muscle tissue would increase

d. the production of water by mitochondria would be inhibited

e. all are expected metabolic changes

27. In the first step of glycolysis, the enzyme hexokinase uses ATP to transfer a phosphate to glucose to form glucose-6-phosphate. The product continues to be oxidized forming pyruvate in glycolysis and is a precursor to acetyl-CoA for the citric acid cycle. Suppose that a cell has only glucose available for energy and that the activity of hexokinase is suddenly stopped in this cell. Which of the following conditions will occur?

a. The cell will continue to produce energy from mitochondrial electron transport.

b. The cell will continue to produce ATP using the citric acid cycle.

c. The cell will ultimately be unable to produce ATP.

d. The cell will be forced to switch to fermentation to produce ATP.

e. The use of oxygen by the cell will increase.

28. During the light phase of photosynthesis __________ is oxidized and __________ is reduced.

a. CO2 and Water

b. Water and CO2

c. Water and NADP

d. NADPH2 and CO2

e. ADP and NAD+

29. The oxygen molecule in glucose formed during photosynthesis comes from:

a. Water

b. Organic acids

c. CO2

d. Atmospheric gases

e. Oxygen produced in the chloroplasts

30. With regard to the enzyme rubisco, oxygen…

a. Is an allosteric activator of the enzyme.

b. Is a competitive inhibitor.

c. Helps prevent photorespiration.

d. Increases the catalytic efficiency of the carboxylation reaction.

e. Is produced when rubisco “splits” water.

31. Unidirectional flow of electrons in non-cyclic photophosphorylation can be denoted as follows:

a. PS II — e- —> PS I — e- —> NADP — e- —> water

b. Water — e- —> PSII — e- —> PS I — e- —> NADP

c. PS I — e- —> NADP — e- —> water — e- —> PS II

d. Water — e- —> PS I — e- —> PS II — e- —> NADP

e. Oxygen — e- —> PS II — e- —> PS I — e- —> ATP

32. Chlorophyll-a differs from chlorophyll-b in having:

a. A methyl group instead of aldehyde group

b. An aldehyde group instead of methyl group

c. A methyl group instead of ethyl group

d. Only a phytol tail instead of head

e. A ketone group instead of a methyl group

33. ____________ are placed one above the other to form stack of pancakes known as a granum.

a. oxysomes

b. F1 particles

c. cristae

d. thylakoids

e. chloroplasts

34. In C4 plants, the Calvin cycle operates in:

a. Stroma of bundle sheath chloroplasts

b. Grana of Bundle sheath chloroplasts

c. Grana of mesophyll chloroplasts

d. Stroma of mesophyll chloroplasts

e. Lumen of palisade chloroplasts

35. How many ATP, FADH2, and NADH molecules per acetyl CoA are produced during the citric acid cycle?

a. 1: 1: 3

b. 2: 2: 6

c. 3: 1: 1

d. 6: 2: 2

e. 1: 1: 2

36. Consider the following diagram of the cell cycle. Which of the following statements is true?

a. mitosis is represented by V

b. G0 is represented by I

c. chromosomes are comprised of 2 sister chromatids during I and V

d. the chromosomes are replicated during II

e. G2 is represented by I

37. Which kind of protein is responsible for regulating the cell cycle?

a. Kintetochores

b. Cyclins

c. Catalytic Enzymes

d. Centrosomes

e. Keratins

38. Bacteria grown in a heavy nitrogen medium are allowed two cycles of replication in a light nitrogen medium. After centrifugation, how many levels of DNA density can be found?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 0

e. It is impossible to tell

39. Which of the following is a true statement regarding DNA transcription?

a. Active transcription is generally associated with heterochromatin.

b. Adding acetyl groups to heterochromatin will create euchromatin.

c. Methylating heterochromatin will produce euchromatin, which can be transcribed.

d. Adding a CHO group to heterochromatin will allow heterochromatin to be transcribed.

e. DNA can only be transcribed upon removal of the histone proteins.

40. Which of the following types of RNA is/are translated?

a. mRNA

b. rRNA

c. tRNA

d. miRNA

e. (a) and (d) only

41. What does it mean to say that the genetic code is “degenerate”?

a. More than one amino acid encodes each codon

b. DNA degrades quickly, and so must constantly be replicated

c. More than one codon encodes each amino acid

d. Only one codon encodes each amino acid

e. DNA is tends to accrue mutations over time

42. Newly synthesised secretory proteins contain a signal sequence. The function of which is…

a. to direct an mRNA molecule into the cisternal space of the endoplasmic reticulum

b. to facilitate attachment of ribosomes synthesizing the protein to the endoplasmic reticulum

c. to terminate translation of the mRNA and cause the protein to dissociate from the ribosome

d. to signal the initiation of transcription

e. Answers (a) & (d) are both correct

43. As you are writing this mock exam, you are breathing in O2 and breathing out CO2. The CO2 arises from the

a. Oxidation of acetyl-CoA by the citric acid cycle.

b. Conversion of glucose to pyruvate during glycolysis.

c. Conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA.

d. Oxditative phosphorylation.

e. Both (a) and (c) are correct

Answer questions 44-49 using the table above and the following template strand of DNA:

3’-GCTACCCGATGTACGGAGTCACTATTG-5’

44. If the sequence above were transcribed, which of the following mRNA sequences would be produced?

a. 3’- CGAUGGGCUACAUGCCUCAGUGAUAAC-5’

b. 5’- CGAUGGGCUACAUGCCUCAGUGAUAAC-3’

c. 3’- GCUACCCGAUGUACGGAGUCACUAUUG-5’

d. 5’- GCU ACC CGA UGU ACG GAG UCA CUA UUG-3’

e. 5’- CGATGGGCTACAUGCCTCAGTGATAAC-3’

45. If this mRNA sequence is in a eukaryote, what is the name of the enzyme which would transcribe the sequence?

a. RNA polymerase

b. RNA polymerase II

c. DNA polymerase

d. DNA polymerase II

e. Ribosome

46. If the mRNA sequence were then translated, which of the following polypeptide chains would be produced?

a. Arg-Trp-Ala-Thr-Cys-Leu-Ser-Asp-Asn

b. Met- Arg-Trp-Ala-Thr-Cys-Leu-Ser-Asp-Asn

c. Ala-Thr-Arg-Cys-Thr-Glu-Ser-Leu-Leu

d. Met-Gly-Tyr-Met-Pro-Gln

e. Met-Tyr-Gly-Val-Thr-Ile

47. Which of the following is a possible anticodon sequence of the tRNA which could deliver methionine to the growing polypeptide chain?

a. 3’-TAC-5’

b. 5’-TAC-3’

c. 3’-AUG-5’

d. 5’-AUG-3’

e. 3’-ATG-5’

48. If the DNA sequence were mutated, such that the second thymine in the sequence became a guanine, what sequence polypeptide sequence would be produced?

3’-GCTACCCGAGGTACGGAGTCACTATTG-5’

a. Met-Tyr

b. Met-Arg-Trp-Ala-Pro-Cys-Leu-Ser-Asp-Asn

c. Arg-Trp-Ala-Pro-Cys-Leu-Ser-Asp-Asn

d. Ala-Thr-Arg

e. Met-Gly-Ser-Met-Pro-Gln

49. What type of mutation is the mutation in question 48?

a. Silent mutation

b. Missense mutation

c. Nonsense mutation

d. Frameshift mutation

e. Replacement mutation

50. A gene that normally encodes for a protein that is 65000 g/mol in mass is exposed to a hazardous chemical. After it is transcribed into a protein, it is found that the protein is 15000 g/mol in mass. What kind of mutation likely occurred?

a. Nonsense

b. Missense

c. Frameshift

d. Silent

e. Continuous

51. A chemical that impairs the ability of spindle fibres to function normally in a diploid cell would likely result in offspring in the F1 generation that are:

a. Polyploid

b. Diploid

c. Large

d. Recombined

e. Haploid

52. Could a type O blood type father ever have an offspring with blood type AB?

a. Yes, but only if the mother has type AB blood

b. Yes, but only if the mother also has type O blood

c. Yes, but only if the father is RH(d) negative

d. Yes, but only if the mother is RH(d) negative.

e. No

53. In humans, males are…

a. Homogametic

b. Heterogametic

c. Hemigametic

d. Hermaphroditic

e. pseudohermaphroditic

54. The dominant C allele of a gene that controls colour in corn produces kernels with colour; plants homozygous for a recessive c allele of this gene have colourless or white kernels. If a CC plant and a Cc plant were crossed, what would be the expected phenotypic ratios of the offspring?

a. 1 coloured kernels: 1 white kernels

b. 3 coloured kernels: 1 white kernels

c. 1 coloured kernels: 3 white kernels

d. 4 coloured kernels: 0 white kernels

e. It is impossible to tell

55. A researcher crosses plants that are heterozygous for the dominant ‘tall’ trait and the recessive ‘short’ trait. 585 plants in the F1 generation are tall. Approximately how many plants in the F1 generation would you expect to be short?

a. 195

b. 585

c. 146

d. 780

e. 245

56. In Mendel’s experiments, the spherical seed character (SS) is completely dominant over the dented seed character (ss). If the characters for height were incompletely dominant, such that TT are tall, Tt are intermediate and tt are short, what would be the phenotypes resulting from crossing a spherical-seeded, short (SStt) plant to a dented-seeded, tall (ssTT) plant?

a. All the progeny would be spherical-seeded and tall.

b. 1/2 would be spherical-seeded and intermediate height; 1/2 would be spherical-seeded and tall.

c. All the progeny would be spherical-seeded and short.

d. You cannot predict the outcome.

e. All the progeny would be spherical-seeded and intermediate height.

57. Two unlinked loci effect mouse hair color. AA or Aa mice are agouti. Mice with genotype aa are albino because all pigment production is blocked, regardless of the phenotype at the second locus. At the second locus, the B allele (agouti coat) is dominant to the b allele (black coat). What would be the result of a cross between two agouti mice of genotype AaBb?

a. 4 agouti: 4 black: 8 albino

b. 9 agouti: 3 black: 3 albino: 1 grey

c. 9 agouti: 3 black: 4 albino

d. 8 agouti: 4 black: 4 albino

e. None of the above

58. In guinea pigs, an allele for rough fur is dominant over an allele for smooth fur; an allele for black coat is dominant over that for white. You have an animal with rough, black fur. What cross would you use to determine whether the animal is homozygous for these traits?

a. Cross the animal with a rough, black fur individual.

b. Cross the animal with a rough, white fur individual.

c. Cross the animal with a smooth, black fur individual.

d. Cross the animal with a smooth, white fur individual.

e. Two generations of crosses are required to determine whether the animal is homozygous for these traits.

59. If freckles were coded by an autosomal dominant gene and one parent had freckles, what percentage of the offspring would have freckles?

a. 50%

b. 25%

c. 100%

d. 75%

e. More information is required in order to accurately answer this question.

60. If a Drosophila melanogaster that is heterozygous for two genes (phenotype short haired and curly winged) is crossed with an organism that is homozygous recessive for the genes (phenotype long haired and normal winged) and the resultant F1 generation is composed of 157 short haired curly winged, 685 short haired normal winged, 148 normal haired curly winged, and 672 normal haired curly winged, what does this tell you about the genes?

a. These genes are all found at the same loci.

b. These genes assorted independently.

c. These genes are likely located close to each other on the same chromosome, making them linked.

d. These genes assorted independently and they are likely located close to each other on the same chromosome.

e. No information can be gathered about the genes location, but information regarding which traits are dominant is now known.

61. Using the results for the F1 generation above (in question 60), the allele for hair length and wing shape are how many map units apart?

a. 32

b. 18

c. 78

d. The genes are not on the same chromosome

e. It is impossible to tell

62. If a father passes a genetically dominant disease on to his son, it cannot have a(n) _____________ inheritance pattern.

a. Autosomal dominant

b. Autosomal recessive

c. Sex-linked recessive

d. None of the above

e. A father cannot pass a genetically inheritable disease to his sons, he can only pass on a disease to his daughters

63. In a dihybrid cross, SsYy x SsYy, what fraction of the offspring will be homozygous for both traits?

a. 1/16

b. 1/8

c. 3/16

d. 1/4

e. 3/4

64. What offspring would you expect from a cross between the female Drosophila with red eyes and a yellow body (homozygous recessive for the yellow body color allele and homozygous dominant for the eye colour allele) and a male fruit fly with white eyes and a tan body (hemizygous for both the recessive (white) eye color allele and dominant (tan) body color allele.

The alleles for eye color and for body color are on the X chromosome of Drosophila. Red eye color (w+) is dominant to white eye color (w), and tan body color (y+) is dominant to yellow body color (y).

a. Daughters would be yellow-bodied, red-eyed; the sons would be tan-bodied, white-eyed

b. Daughters would be tan-bodied, red-eyed; the sons would be yellow-bodied, white-eyed

c. Daughters would be tan-bodied, red-eyed; the sons would be yellow-bodied, red-eyed

d. Daughters would be yellow-bodied, white-eyed; the sons would be tan-bodied, white-eyed

e. Daughters would be yellow-bodied, red-eyed; the sons would be tan-bodied, red-eyed

65. Individuals with three copies of most autosomes do not survive. Individuals with an extra X chromosome, however, survive with relatively mild (compared to autosomal abnormalities) consequences. Why?

a. The X chromosome contains few genes while autosomes contain a large number

b. The extra X chromosome(s) are inactivated

c. The X chromosome determines sex only

d. This is not true, individuals would not survive with three X chromosomes

e. none of the above

66. Consider a parental cross AABBCc x AabbCc. Assume complete dominance and independent assortment. What proportion of the progeny will be expected to phenotypically resemble the AABBCc parent?

a. 1/4

b. 1/8

c. 3/4

d. 1

e. 3/8

67. Assuming equal sex ratios, if a mating has already produced 3 girls, what is the probability that the next child will be a girl?

a. 0

b. 1

c. 1/2

d. (1/2)3

e. 1 ? (1/2)3

68. During conjugation, the purpose of the sex pilus is to…

a. Facilitate the movement of nutrients between a donor and a recipient cell.

b. Allow for the transfer of gametes.

c. Facilitate DNA exchange between a donor cell and a recipient cell.

d. Stabilize a network of bacterial cells.

e. Facilitate the movement of pollen from the anther to an egg situated in the ovule.

69. Centromeres of sister chromatids uncouple and chromatids separate during…

a. Anaphase of Meiosis I

b. Anaphase of Meiosis II

c. Anaphase of Mitosis

d. Answers (b) and (c) are both correct.

e. All of the above are correct.

70. A principle difference between Prophase I of meiosis and prophase of mitosis is that…

a. Tetrads form in prophase I of meiosis but not during prophase of mitosis

b. The chromosomes are highly condensed only during prophase I of meiosis

c. In prophase I of meiosis, homologous chromosomes separate, wheras in prophase of mitosis, sister chromatids separate

d. A spindle apparatus forms in prophase of mitosis, but not during prophase I of meiosis.

e. Answers (a) and (d) are both correct.

71. Which of the following is a DNA sequence?

a. Coactivator

b. Corepressor

c. Enhancer

d. Inducer

e. Transactivator

72. In the fruit fly, the dominant and recessive traits for body colour and wing size are as follows:

Character Wild Type / Dominant Trait Mutant / Recessive Trait

Body Colour Grey (b+) Black (b)

Wing Size Normal (vg+) Vestigial (vg)

The genes encoding body colour and wing size are linked.

A wild-type fruit fly (heterozygous for grey body colour and normal wings) was mated with a black fruit fly with vestigial wings. The distribution of the offspring is as follows:

802 – Wild Type

798 – Black with vestigial wings

206 – grey with vestigial wings

194 – black with normal wings

What is the recombination frequency between the genes for body colour and wing size?

a. 10%

b. 20%

c. 40%

d. 80%

e. There is no recombination

73. Genetic differences in prokaryotic cells will arise as a result of:

a. Mutations arising during DNA replication

b. Unequal crossing over and recombination during prophase I

c. Independent assortment of chromosomes during meiosis I

d. Recombination between the recipient chromosome and DNA entering the cell through transformation, conjugation and transduction.

e. Answers (a) and (d) are both correct.

74. Which of the following is a characteristic of all viruses?

a. a protein capsid

b. nucleic acid genome

c. glycoprotein cell wall

d. (a) and (b) only

e. All of the above

75. Double-stranded viruses can reproduce the lytic cycle and the lysogenic cycle. Which of the following is characteristic of the lytic cycle?

a. The viral genome replicates without destroying the host

b. The virus-host relationship usually lasts for generations

c. Many bacterial cells containing viral DNA are produced

d. Viral DNA is incorporated into the host chromosomes

e. A large number of phages are released at a time

76. Bacteriophage DNAs that have become integrated into the host cell chromosome are called:

a. plasmids

b. T-even bacteriophages

c. prophages

d. transposons

e. intemperate bacteriophage

77. An Hfr bacterium is one that has:

a. A plasmid that has become integrated into its chromosome

b. Several copies of a single transposon repeated randomly throughout its chromosome

c. Several insertion sequences scattered throughout its chromosome

d. A special recognition site that will take up closely related DNA from its environment

e. At least one plasmid present in the cytosol

78. Which of the following statements correctly describes promoters in E. coli?

a. promoter may be present on either side of a gene or in the middle of it

b. All promoters have the same sequence that is recognized by RNA polymerase holoenzyme

c. Every promoter has a different sequence, with little or no resemblance to other promoters

d. Many promoters are similar and resemble a consensus sequence, which has the highest affinity for RNA polymerase holoenzyme

e. Promoters are not essential for gene transcription, but can increase its rate by two- to three-fold

79. What is the function of the operator locus of the lactose operon?

a. Terminate production of repressor molecules

b. Initiate production of mRNA

c. Identify the substrate allolactose

d. Bind steroid hormones and control translation

e. Control the binding of RNA polymerase to the operator region

80. When is the lactose operon likely to be transcribed? When…

a. There is more lactose in the cell than glucose

b. There is more glucose in the cell than lactose

c. There is lactose but no glucose in the cell

d. The cyclic AMP levels are high within the cell

e. Both (c) and (d) are correct

81. The interaction between non?allelic genes in their effects on a trait is called:

a. epistasis

b. epigenetics

c. dominance

d. codominance

e. incomplete dominance