05 Jun WHAT HAPPENS TO A DRUG THAT METABOLIZES QUICKLY IN THE LIVER?
What happens to a drug that metabolizes quickly in the liver?
Eam: 084086RR – Adverse Reactions/Drug Interactions1. What happens to a drug that metabolizes quickly in the liver?A. It gains in effectiveness and toicity.B. It loses its effect quickly.C. It loses its effect slowly.D. It becomes an inactive alcohol. 2. The following figures indicate the incidence of drug-induced tremors for four drugs: Drug A: 11 percent;Drug B: 9.5 percent; Drug C: 10 percent; Drug D: 2 percent. Which of these drugs causes the highestincidence of tremors?A. Drug DB. Drug CC. Drug AD. Drug B 3. Which of the following adverse drug reactions indicates an impaired production of platelets?A. ThrombocytosisB. AgranulocytosisC. ThrombocytopeniaD. Anemia 4. Which of the following adverse drug effects indicates sleepiness?A. SomnolenceB. PharyngitisC. DyspepsiaD. Hypokinesia 5. Which of the following digestive system effects is the most common adverse reaction seen withnonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)?A. DiarrheaB. ConstipationC. AnoreiaD. Gastric irritation 6. A patient who is taking carbamazepine (Tegretol) to prevent seizures should not be givenA. codeine.B. acetaminophen.C. phenylbutazone (Butazolidin).D. propoyphene (Darvocet-N). 7. Which of the following drugs should not be given to patients who are taking oral contraceptives?A. ProzacB. Penicillin VKC. AspirinD. Acetaminophen 8. Which of the following adverse drug reactions indicates a greater number of white cells than normal?A. LeukocytosisB. LeukopeniaC. DermatitisD. Hypotension 9. Adverse reactions caused by a drug are also called _______ actions.A. undesirableB. therapeuticC. beneficialD. desirable 10. The description of drug-induced allergies will be found in the adverse-reaction section of a drugmonograph under the categoryA. Endocrine System.B. Special Senses.C. Hematologic Effects.D. Hypersensitivity Reactions. 11. When a drug interacts with warfarin, the drug may cause a dangerous adverse effect byA. causing the withdrawal of warfarin.B. inhibiting the oidative actions of the drug-metabolizing enzyme system.C. enhancing the effect of the anticoagulant.D. increasing the psychomotor impairment of the patient. 12. Which of the following statements about pharmacovigilance is true?A. Physicians and patients are required to make reports about adverse drug reactions to pharmacovigilance centers.B. Only the long-term side effects of medicines are investigated by pharmacovigilance researchers.C. Pharmacovigilance is devoted to detecting, understanding, and preventing adverse effects in patients.D. Pharmacovigilance research takes place before a drug has gone through clinical trials and entered the marketplace. 13. Using alcohol with _______ will cut their lethal dose in half.A. barbituratesB. narcoticsC. tranquilizersD. antidepressants 14. Phenobarbital will increase the liver metabolism of _______ to decrease its effectiveness.A. warfarinB. ibuprofenC. acetaminophenD. alcohol 15. Which of the following drugs can erythromycin interact with to cause nausea, headache, and blurredvision?A. Fluoetine (Prozac)B. TegretolC. Tolbutamide (Orinase)D. Penicillin VK 16. Alcohol should not be taken with any drug containing _______ because of the chance of liver toicity.A. aluminum saltsB. MotrinC. acetaminophenD. calcium 17. When taken simultaneously with tetracycline, which of the following will prevent the absorption oftetracycline into the bloodstream?A. TheophyllineB. ErythromycinC. AcetaminophenD. Aluminum-containing antacids 18. Which of the following adverse drug reactions indicates an abnormal heart rhythm?A. ArrhythmiaB. Orthostatic hypotensionC. Angina-like painD. Thrombocytosis 19. Which of the following drugs should not be given to patients who are taking warfarin?A. TheophyllineB. AntacidsC. AspirinD. Acetaminophen 20. Which of the following adverse effects is categorized as a whole-body reaction, and is caused by drugssuch as fluoetine (Prozac) and enalapril (Vasotec)?A. Mental confusionB. HeadacheC. Mental depressionD. Dizziness Eam: 084087RR – Compounding of Sterile Products1. A TPN has been prescribed for a patient to be administered at 180 ml per hour. What type of TPN isthis?A. CentralB. PeripheralC. DorsalD. Lateral 2. How many total grams of detrose are there in a 10% syringe that’s 20 ml in size?A. 10 gB. 20 gC. 2 gD. 5 g 3. Coring occurs when the IV technicianA. inserts a needle at the wrong angle or uses a large-bore needle.B. mies two IV products that are incompatible.C. fails to use a filter needle with an ampule.D. follows incorrect procedures for reconstitution. 4. Which of the following are two commercially available IV fat emulsions?A. Humulin R and Novolin RB. Mutamycin and MithracinC. RenAmin and NephrAmineD. Intralipids and Liposyn II 5. A pharmacy technician should add regular insulin to the bag through the port only after removing thetransfer tubing because insulinA. interacts with detrose.B. adheres to the port.C. adheres to the transfer tubing.D. interacts with amino acids. 6. A laminar flow hood has been turned off. After it’s turned back on, how long must it run before using it?A. 2 hoursB. 30 minutesC. 5 minutesD. 1 hour 7. Which of the following is an electrolyte?A. Folic acidB. Potassium chlorideC. Intravenous emulsionD. Vitamin C 8. Transfer tubings or sets are used for which one of the following reasons?A. In the hospital to administer IVPBs to a patientB. In the pharmacy to move a large amount of fluid into another containerC. In the hospital to administer LVPs to a patientD. In the pharmacy to administer IVPs to a patient 9. How can you avoid buildup of positive pressure when reconstituting antineoplastics?A. Lightly tap the ampule with your finger or on the counter.B. Allow air from the vial to enter the syringe.C. Inject air into the vial.D. Use a luer lock syringe to hold the needle in place. 10. Why would sterile water for injection be used in a TPN?A. To change it from a peripheral TPN to a central TPNB. To increase the volume of the laminar flowC. To sterilize the solution through a 0.22-micron filterD. To dilute the detrose to a desired concentration 11. Which of the following must a technician use in the hand preparation of TPNs, ophthalmics, andantineoplastics?A. A computerized compounding machineB. A chemo safety pinC. A piece of sterile gauzeD. A laminar flow hood 12. Technicians should use yellow, puncture-resistant containers labeled Caution: Chemotherapy Waste inthe disposal of which of the following materials?A. Absorbent mats used in the preparation of TPNsB. Transfer tubings used in the transfer of lipids to 3-in-1 solutionsC. Ophthalmics from the Compounding Centers of AmericaD. Gloves used in the preparation of antineoplastics 13. 750 mg of a drug is in a total of 10 ml of a solution after reconstitution. How much solution should bedrawn up to obtain 375 mg of the drug?A. 9 mlB. 2 mlC. 5 mlD. 7.5 ml 14. Large volumes of IV solution may easily be transferred into a(n)A. premied piggyback.B. evacuated container.C. prefilled syringe.D. ampule or vial. 15. Isotonic products for IV use have a concentration that’s _______ that of body fluids.A. the same asB. lower thanC. slightly lower thanD. higher than 16. Calculate the IV rate if you have a 500 ml bag that’s to be infused over 8 hours.A. 40 ml/hrB. 60 ml/hrC. 63 ml/hrD. 16 ml/hr 17. A horizontal laminar flow hood has air flowing fromA. the front toward the worker.B. bottom to top.C. top to bottom.D. behind the filter toward the worker. 18. Which of the following is considered to be controlled room temperature?A. 59–86°F (15–30°C)B. 36–46°F (28°C)C. 65–72°F (18–22°C)D. 0–32°F (-18–0°C) 19. Which of the following is an amino acid solution?A. CerubidineB. TravasolC. AsparaginaseD. Tobre 20. What is the highest detrose concentration that may be administered through a peripheral vein?A. 90%B. 50%C. 40%D. 10% 21. For what is a 0.22-micron filter used in the preparation of ophthalmics?A. SterilizationB. pH balancingC. DecalcifyingD. Measuring 22. What is the concentration of a solution that has 2 g of powder in 5 ml of solution?A. 2.5 g per mlB. 0.4 g per mlC. 10 g per mlD. 0.75 g per ml 23. If a TPN is running at 50 ml per hour, how many milliliters will be required in one bag to last 24 hours?A. 1200 mlB. 1000 mlC. 2000 mlD. 2400 ml 24. Microbial contamination of an IV product will most likely occur when a technicianA. stores products in metal boes.B. wears jewelry and makeup.C. wears surgical attire and foot, face, and hair coverings.D. works si inches within the hood. 25. Which of the following solutions are used most often for IVPB dilution?A. Lactated Ringer’s and D5B. D5W and normal salineC. D50% and 9% sodium chlorideD. D5 & 0.9NS and 0.9% NaCl 26. A(n) _______ is a microorganism that can cause disease but isn’t considered a living thing.A. bacterium.B. aerobic organism.C. virus.D. anaerobic organism. 27. A drug product that contains undissolved solids is known as a(n)A. suspension.B. isotonic solution.C. admiture.D. solution. 28. What is the purpose of a HEPA filter?A. To monitor airborne contaminantsB. To filter airborne contaminantsC. To filter IV solutionsD. To filter IV suspensions 29. Which of the following ingredients are parts of a total parenteral nutrition solution?A. Bleomycin, asparaginase, and busulfanB. Antineoplastics, aerosolized drugs, and tetanus vaccinesC. Detrose, amino acids, and electrolytesD. Antibiotics, ophthalmic preparations, and miscible fluids 30. _______ may be added to a TPN for patients who are intolerant to high levels of sugar.A. ManganeseB. CimetidineC. HeparinD. Insulin 31. Intermittent infusions are most often givenA. by LVP.B. at a constant rate over a 24-hour period.C. continuously.D. at regular intervals, such as every si or eight hours. 32. Which of the following are parts of a trace element solution?A. Magnesium, potassium, titanium, and platinumB. Sodium, potassium, and calciumC. Vitamin B, vitamin C, and folic acidD. Zinc, copper, chromium, and manganese 1233. In what part of the body are ophthalmic preparations directly administered?A. The eyeB. The noseC. The mouthD. The ear 34. If there are 250 mg of medication in a 5 ml solution, how many milligrams of medication are in 2.5 mlof the solution?A. 250 mgB. 500 mgC. 100 mgD. 125 mg 35. Intravenous medications must have which of the following characteristics?A. Be sterile (free from microorganisms)B. Be in powder form originallyC. Be diluted to a larger volumeD. Be drawn up with a final filtering device 36. Large-volume parenterals (LVPs) are in what general size range?A. 0.5 ml–1 mlB. 50 ml–100 mlC. 2 ml–50 mlD. 250 ml–3000 ml 37. Which of the following is a characteristic of all ophthalmic products?A. SterileB. AcidicC. Commercially producedD. Etemporaneously compounded 38. An IV is set to run at 125 ml per hour. How long will it take for the IV to run out if it’s a 1000 ml bag?A. 8 hoursB. 10 hoursC. 12 hoursD. 5 hours 39. Which of the following terms best describes the solution in a TPN?A. HypertonicB. IsotonicC. HypotonicD. Tonic 40. Convert 400 mcg to milligrams.A. 0.4 mgB. 0.004 mgC. 0.04 mgD. 4 mg 41. A preparation containing two or more ingredients that’s administered as IV therapy is known as IVA. push.B. admiture.C. piggyback.D. infusion. 42. Concentrated solutions of which of the following are base solutions in a TPN?A. Detrose and amino acidsB. Sodium chloride and potassium chlorideC. Antineoplastics and magnesium saltsD. MVI and lipids 43. IV therapy is normally used for patients who needA. rehydration, additional nutrition, electrolyte replacement, or drugs that require larger volumes for dilution.B. hypertonic infusion, electrolyte replacement, dehydration, or drugs that require larger volumes for dilution.C. hypertonic infusion, electrolyte replacement, rehydration, or additional nutrition.D. additional nutrition, dehydration, isotonic infusion, or drugs that require larger volumes for dilution. 44. A final filtering device is used when the IV tech needs toA. administer a cloudy IV to a patient.B. remove a core or glass fragments from an IV solution.C. reconstitute a powdered drug.D. remove particulate matter from solution before administration to a patient. 45. A syringe that has a luer lock tip has which of the following characteristics?A. The needle is attached to the threaded tip by twisting it like a screw.B. The tip screws onto an oversized barrel.C. The cone-shaped tip is held onto the barrel by friction.D. The needle is attached to the smooth cone-shaped tip by friction. Answer Submitted by Thehonest on Wed, 2016-11-09 00:23teacher rated 76 times 3.5price: $12.50 A+ Work body preview (6 words)Please attached file for file1.doc preview (2207 words)Eam: – Reactions/Drug 1. What to a that in the liver?A. B. It its effect quickly. It loses its effect inactive alcohol. 2. figures indicate the tremors for four A: percent; B: Drug 10 percent; Drug D: percent. Which of these highest D C. B Which of following reactions indicates an impaired of platelets? ThrombocytosisB. Agranulocytosis D. 4. Which of adverse drug effects indicates A. C. Which of is most common adverse seen nonsteroidal – – – more tet follows – – – Buy this answerTry it before you buy itCheck plagiarism for $2.00
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