11 May . Which of the following is true of the scientific method of inquiry?
. Which of the following is true of the scientific method of inquiry?
a. complete once the hypothesis has been tested
b. will vary depending on the specific research question
c. systematic process that is used to answer questions
d. different in basic research than in applied research
2. In true experimental designs, what does research attempt to isolate and control?
a. factors not tested that could be responsible for any effects except the ones being tested
b. statistics that are used to interpret the results
c. laboratory conditions to maximize the validity of the experiment
d. answers of the people in the study
3. What is the major difference between applied and basic research?
a. basic research takes longer to complete
b. applied research is less important
c. basic research is more traditional
d. basic research has no immediate application
4. What is another term for basic research?
a. real research
b. pure research
c. applied research
d. baseline research
5. How many steps are included in the research process?
a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. 9
6. What is the most important step in the research process?
a. testing the hypothesis
b. data collection
c. formulating the hypothesis
d. asking the question
7. Samantha is interested in studying the relationship between gender differences and verbal ability. This is an example of what type of research?
a. descriptive
b. correlational
c. quasi-experimental
d. gender research
8. Ann divides her classes into two groups—a treatment group and a non-treatment group—to test whether her new method of teaching subtraction is better than her old method. This is an
example of what type of research?
a. historical
b. quasi-experimental
c. correlational
d. experimental research
9. The scientific method is described in the textbook as _____________.
a. restricted to use in correlational research
b. having no immediate application at the time research is completed
c. a standard sequence of steps in formulating and answering a question
d. the study of phenomena within the social and cultural context in which they occur
10. What does a good research question usually pursue?
a. a small part of a broad topic
b. a topic unrelated to any other topics
c. the same thing as the null hypothesis
d. a broad topic
11. Which of the following best describes independent variables?
a. not manipulated by the experimenter
b. manipulated to assess the effect of the treatment
c. unrelated to the treatment
d. not necessary
12. Sampling allows researchers to overcome the problem of which of the following?
a. overcrowded laboratories
b. biased subject response
c. not having access to the whole population
d. not having access to the proper statistical methods
13. If you read that a study’s finding was significant at the p
that there is a less than 5% probability that ______________.
a. the results will translate to real world situations
b. most researchers in that area would consider the finding to have clinical meaning
c. the researchers used unreliable measures
d. the results were due to chance
14. There will be no relationship between children’s time in day care and later academic achievement. This is an example of which of the following?
a. a research hypothesis
b. a factorial design
c. a correlational hypothesis
d. a null hypothesis
15. A research hypothesis _______________.
a. represents an equality
b. is represented by Roman symbols
c. is tested indirectly
d. is implicit
16. In testing whether riding a bicycle at least 30 minutes each day reduces weight, what would be the independent variable?
a. the person’s age
b. amount of time bicycling each day
c. the person’s weight
d. the person’s diet
17. Once information is collected, what is the first step in writing a literature review?
a. create a unified theme for the review
b. build bridges between different areas in the review
c. work from an outline
d. read other literature reviews
18. Which is NOT a hint to help you write your literature review?
a. create a unified theme
b. use a system to organize your materials
c. make sure it is testable
d. work from an outline
19. A well-written hypothesis _____________.
a. creates a unified theme
b. reflects a theory or body of literature upon which it is based
c. searches through secondary sources
d. uses participants in the study who have been used in similar studies
20. What does the ethical principle of “sharing benefits” mean?
a. all participants in the same study should receive an equal share of the benefits or subject payments
b. all those who belong to the population being studied will share equally from the benefits the study produces
c. the results of studies must be shared with the public so society may benefit from the increased knowledge
d. all groups involved in a study should eventually be given an opportunity to receive any treatments that were found to be effective in the study
21. The Tuskegee Syphilis Study is often used as an example of a ____________.
a. groundbreaking study using Facebook
b. study that did not take into account ethical considerations
c. study guided by the ethical guidelines of the American Medical Association (AMA)
d. study that breached confidentiality of participants
22. Which is NOT a component of informed consent?
a. the purpose of the research
b. who you are
c. how the participant can get a copy of the records
d. a computer simulation of the data
23. Which of the following information should be provided in an informed consent form for any
study involving human participants?
a. the findings of the study
b. the number of participants the study plans to use
c. the procedures involved in the study
d. the names of other participants
24. Sally selects classrooms of first graders to study the effects of teaching styles on math achievement. This is an example of _______________.
a. stratified random sampling
b. cluster sampling
c. proportional sampling
d. sampling error
25. Susan calls every 10th name in the student phone book to ask them to participate in her
study. This is an example of _______________ sampling.
a. simple random
b. stratified
c. convenience
d. quota
26. Sampling error can be defined by which of the following statements?
a. increased by increasing sample size
b. larger as the diversity of sample values becomes smaller
c. can be minimized by using simple random sampling
d. becomes equal to zero over many samples
27. Which of the following statements is true with respect to sample size?
a. use small samples when mailing questionnaires
b. the greater the number of subgroups of interest to the study, the larger the sample
c. more subjects are always better
d. large samples increase sampling error
28. Which of these statements is true regarding cluster sampling?
a. one example of a nonprobability sampling method
b. individuals grouped together based on cluster of profile characteristics
c. minimizes the risk of bias due to a heterogeneous population
d. a great time-saver compared to simple random sampling
29. When might you need a larger sample to represent the population?
a. the amount of variability within groups is small
b. the difference between the two groups is small
c. the difference between the two groups is great
d. both a and c
30. David asks the first 10 freshmen he sees on campus a series of questions. This is an example of a ____________ sampling technique.
a. convenience
b. simple random
c. quota
d. proportional stratified
31. Which of the following statements is false?
a. Validity refers to the results of a test not the test itself.
b. Validity progresses from low to high degrees rather than all or none.
c. A test can lack validity and still be a reliable measure.
d. A test can lack reliability and still be a valid measure.
32. What levels of measurement define most variables in behavioral and social science research?
a. interval and ratio
b. nominal and ordinal
c. nominal and ratio
d. nominal and interval
33. Which one of the following is NOT an important criterion for increasing reliability?
a. eliminate unclear test items
b. standardize the environmental conditions in which the test is given
c. moderate the ease and difficulty of the test
d. use subjective scoring procedures
34. Which of the following is an example of method error?
a. subject fatigue
b. bias in grading
c. lack of motivation
d. test-taking anxiety
35. Which is the least frequently established form of reliability?
a. inter-rater
b. internal consistency
c. test-retest
d. parallel
36. What are the two types of criterion validity?
a. content and construct validity
b. content and parallel validity
c. predictive and parallel validity
d. concurrent and predictive validity
37. Dr. Brown finds that results from different methods used to assess the same trait are highly
correlated and results from different methods used to assess different traits are not significantly correlated. These results demonstrate which two types of validity respectively?
a. predictive and concurrent
b. concurrent and predictive
c. discriminant and convergent
d. convergent and discriminant
38. A test that measures knowledge of a specific topic is considered what type of test?
a. achievement test
b. attitude test
c. personality test
d. projective test
39. Which assessment technique is used in field work?
a. Likert scaling
b. Thurstone scaling
c. observation
d. item analysis
40. Which of the following is NOT a component of a multiple choice question?
a. the stem
b. the root
c. distracters
d. alternatives
41. Name a multiple choice item which provides a plausible but wrong answer.
a. attracter
b. alternative
c. detractor
d. distracter
42. Which of the following is an example of poor characteristics of a questionnaire?
a. Questions are objective and forthright.
b. They are accompanied by a cover letter.
c. They begin with the more difficult, thought-provoking questions while the reader is still attentive.
d. There is a clear statement of transition when the topic of the questions changes.
43. Which of the following is a reason you need to be cautious when observing behavior?
a. Your very presence may affect the behavior being observed.
b. The researcher records everything that happens.
c. Your questionnaire should not be too long and tedious.
d. You may confuse the difficulty index with the discrimination index.
44. A good cover letter for a survey questionnaire has all but one of the following characteristics
listed below. Which is NOT a characteristic of a good cover letter?
a. The initial questions are relatively simple, nonthreatening and easy-to-answer.
b. It is written on official letterhead.
c. It promises confidentiality.
d. It clearly states the purpose of the questionnaire and the importance of the study.
45. Which measure would be used to describe how far a test score is from the average test
score?
a. mean
b. mode
c. median
d. standard deviation
46. In a set of scores with a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 5, what raw score is represented by a z-score of 1.00?
a. 30
b. 55
c. 60
d. 20
47. In a set of scores with a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15, what raw score is
represented by a z-score of 2.00?
a. 115
b. 130
c. 100
d. 70
48. In a normal distribution, what percentage of scores fall between the mean and a z-score of
+1.00?
a. 16%
b. 34%
c. 50%
d. 95%
49. What is another phrase used to describe a bell-shaped curve?
a. average curve
b. regular-shaped curve
c. normal curve
d. elliptical curve
50. You are interviewing classmates to find out their political party affiliation. When you pick
the measure of central tendency to use in presenting your results, which should you choose?
a. range
b. mode
c. median
d. mean
51. When you have ordinal data (such as class rank), which is the best measure of central
tendency to use?
a. range
b. mode
c. median
d. mean
52. The minimum or maximum value that one would expect the test statistic to yield if the null
hypothesis is true is an example of which of the following?
a. critical value
b. F value
c. t-test score
d. sampling mean
53. What can you conclude if the obtained value of a test statistic exceeds the critical value?
a. The null hypothesis cannot be rejected.
b. You made an error when calculating the test statistic.
c. The null hypothesis can be rejected.
d. Your obtained value is not statistically significant.
54. In order to determine the critical value, which two pieces of information are needed?
a. mean and sample size
b. degrees of freedom and level of significance
c. mean and standard deviation
d. degrees of freedom and variance
55. If Professor Columbo is interested in the general trend of research findings regarding infant
visual attention and childhood intelligence, what technique would be most amenable to his
inquiry?
a. Analysis of Variance (ANOVA)
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